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OlgaM077 [116]
3 years ago
9

What is the answer for an=an–1+1

Mathematics
2 answers:
wolverine [178]3 years ago
6 0

‘an’ could represent any number

Simplify the expression to get an = an + 0, or an = an.

This means that a number is equal to itself, which is true for all numbers.

Lapatulllka [165]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

2

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Suppose that y varies inversely with x.write an equation for the inverse variation. Y=6 when x=8
sasho [114]

Answer: y = 48/x

Step-by-step explanation:

y ∝ 1/x

Introducing the proportionality constant, we have

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substituting the value of x and y , we have

6 = k/8

k = 48

Therefore the equation becomes

y = 48/x

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mars1129 [50]
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for the second digit you are choosing from 2 digits
for the third digit you are choosing from 2 digits
2*2*2=8
111
110
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000
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100
010
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Therefore, if you want 3-digit numbers and not just permutations using 0 and 1, then you must eliminate
011, 000, 001, and 010
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3 years ago
ABCD ≅ FGHJ. Find the measure of the given angles or lengths of the given sides. CD = 2x + 3; HJ = 3x + 2.
xenn [34]
The question asks for the length of CD and HJ. To find those, we need to find a connection between them.

In the given statement, it says ABCD ≅ FGHJ. When we look at the equation, the corresponding letters are equal. For example, angle A is congruent to Angle F. Or BC ≅ GH.

So we know that CD and HJ are congruent.
Set them equal:
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If x is 3, plug it in:
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9 + 2 = 11

So, HJ is 11. And because HJ ≅ CD, CD is 11 too.
3 0
3 years ago
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