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lara [203]
3 years ago
7

He has 5 blue marbles, 6 red, and 10 green. If selected at random, what is the probability he selects a red marble?

Mathematics
1 answer:
lidiya [134]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

2/7 chance to select a red marble

Step-by-step explanation:

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The number of counties in state a and the number of counties in state b are consecutive even integers whose sum is 9090. if stat
Oliga [24]
Let x = state b , then x + 2 = state a

now: x + (x +2) = 9090 or 2x + 2 = 9090 Solving this equation:
2x + 2 = 9090 subtract 2 from both sides
2x = 9088 divide both sides by 2
x = 4544
that means x + 2 = 4546

so state a = 4546 and state b = 4544
4 0
3 years ago
Margo used 864 beads to make necklaces for the art club. She made
Anit [1.1K]
Each Necklace Had 36 Beads . 864 / 24 = 36 .
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2 years ago
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According to national data, 5.1% of burglaries are cleared with arrests. A new detective is assigned to six different burglaries
blagie [28]

Answer:

26.95% probability that at least one of them is cleared with an arrest

Step-by-step explanation:

For each burglary, there are only two possible outcomes. Either it is cleared, or it is not. The probability of a burglary being cleared is independent of other burglaries. So we use the binomial probability distribution to solve this question.

Binomial probability distribution

The binomial probability is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials, and X can only have two outcomes.

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

In which C_{n,x} is the number of different combinations of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.

C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}

And p is the probability of X happening.

5.1% of burglaries are cleared with arrests.

This means that p = 0.051

A new detective is assigned to six different burglaries.

This means that n = 6

What is the probability that at least one of them is cleared with an arrest?

Either none are cleared, or at least one is. The sum of the probabilities of these events is 100% = 1. So

P(X = 0) + P(X \geq 1) = 1

We want P(X \geq 1)

Then

P(X \geq 1) = 1 - P(X = 0)

In which

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

P(X = 0) = C_{6,0}.(0.051)^{0}.(0.949)^{6} = 0.7305

P(X \geq 1) = 1 - P(X = 0) = 1 - 0.7305 = 0.2695

26.95% probability that at least one of them is cleared with an arrest

8 0
2 years ago
25 pointssss !!!!!!!!!
Reptile [31]

Answer:

Dion needs to add 10% of the solution

4 0
2 years ago
Graph: g(x)=5cos((\pi )/(2)x-(3\pi )/(2))-2
Tatiana [17]

g(x)=5cos((\pi )/(2)x-(3\pi )/(2))-2

generate by:  Amplitude:5    Period:4

                      Phase shift:(3 to the right)    Vertical shift:-2

x=3,g(x)= 3

x=4,g(x)= -2

x=5,g(x)= -5

x=6,g(x)= -2

x=7,g(x)= 3

the graph is like cos(x)

learn more about trigonometric graphs here:

brainly.com/question/18265536

#SPJ1

3 0
1 year ago
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