Answer:
Trial Income Statement:
Service revenue $17,000
Rent expense ($3,500)
Insurance expense ($350)
<u>Wages expense ($10,500)</u>
Net income $2,650
*We need to adjust other expenses like supplies or utilities. I assumed the salaries paid were for a 10 days period since no one pays salaries in advance.
Trial Balance Sheet
Assets:
Cash $62,200
Supplies $1,000
Prepaid insurance $3,850
<u>Equipment $10,000 </u>
Total Assets $77,050
Liabilities and Equity:
Accounts payable $8,000
Wages payable $7,000
Common Stock $60,000
<u>Retained earnings $2,050 </u>
Total Liabilities and Equity $77,050
Explanation:
July 1
Dr Cash 60,000
Cr Common stock 60,000 (6,000 stocks $10 par value)
July 3
<u>Rent expense 3,500</u>
Cr Cash 3,500
July 5
Dr Prepaid insurance 4,200
Cr Cash 4,200
Adjusting entry July 31
Dr Insurance expense 350
Cr Prepaid insurance 350
July 7
Dr Supplies 1,000
Cr Accounts payable 1,000
July 10
Dr Wages expense 3,500
Cr Cash 3,500
Adjusting entry July 31
Dr Wages expense 7,000 ($3,500 x 2 10 day periods)
Cr Wages payable 7,000
July 14
Dr Equipment 10,000
Cr Cash 2,500
Cr Accounts payable 7,500
July 15
Dr Cash 8,000
Cr Service revenue 8,000
July 19
Dr Accounts payable 500
Cr Cash 500
July 31
Dr Cash 9,000
Cr Service revenue 9,000
Dr Retained earnings 600
Cr Dividends payable 600
Dr Dividends payable 600
Cr Cash 600
Answer:
2 years
Explanation:
Payback period is the length of time it takes for the future cash flows to equal the initial investment.
$224,000 = $112,000 + $112,000
therefore,
It takes 2 years for the cashflows to equal initial investment
Probably production function
Answer:
Statement a. is correct.
Explanation:
The effective annual rate is always higher than the nominal interest rate, as the formula is clear for any number of periods, for any interest rate:
Effective Annual Rate of return = 
Further if we calculate the present value of annuity due and ordinary annuity assuming 6 % interest rate, then:
Present value of annuity due =
= 1.06 
$400.95
= $425.0089
Present value of ordinary annuity = 
= $150 2.6730
= $400.95
Therefore, value of annuity due is more than value of ordinary annuity.
Statement a. is correct.
