Marginal analysis is really important for a firm. Marginal analysis helps a firm to determine the most equitable allocation of a firm’s resources.
EXPLANATION:
Marginal analysis is an assessment of additional benefits of a firm activity, compared to the additional costs which are incurred by the exact same firm’s activity. A firm or company applied marginal analysis to make a decision which helps a firm to maximize the potential profits and benefits. The example of marginal analysis is when the firm’s cost to produce one more appliance or the profit gained by adding one more worker.
In microeconomics, marginal analysis is applied to analyze how a compound system being influenced by marginal manipulation of its comprising variables. On this occasion, the marginal analysis focuses on investigating the results of small changes as the consequences cascade across the business as a whole. The goal of marginal analysis is to investigate whether the costs associated with the change in activity will affect in a benefit which is sufficient enough to offset a firm. The whole impact of marginal analysis is on the cost of producing an individual unit which is most often observed as a comparison’s point.
LEARN MORE:
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KEYWORDS: marginal analysis, economy analysis
Subject: Business
Class: 10-12
Sub-chapter: Marginal Analysis
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Answer:
stock price = (Div 1 / r - g1) x {1 - [(1 + g1) / (1 + r)]ⁿ} + (Div 1 / r - g2) x [(1 + g1) / (1 + r)]ⁿ⁻¹
Explanation:
since the company will first grow at g1 for n years, and then at g2 forever, we need to first determine the present value of the dividends growing at g1 for n years:
present value of the dividends during n = (Div 1 / r - g1) x {1 - [(1 + g1) / (1 + r)]ⁿ}
e.g. div = $2, n = 5 years, g1 = 8%, r = 12%
(2 / 12% - 8%) x {1 - [(1 + 8%) / (1 + 12%)]⁵} = 50 x 0.166263 = $8.31
now we find the formula to calculate the present value for the growing perpetuity g2 at n - 1 years:
= (Div 1 / r - g2) x [(1 + g1) / (1 + r)]ⁿ⁻¹
following the same example but changing g1 for g2, and g2 = 5%
= (2 / 12% - 5%) x [(1 + 5%) / (1 + 12%)]⁵⁻¹ = 28.5714 x 0.772476 = $22.07
we now add both parts to finish our example = $8.31 + $22.07 = $30.38
Answer:
The answer of each requirement is given below.
If they are "costs" why are they recorded in asset accounts and not expense accounts?
These cost are future expense. As per accounting rules expense is recorded against any purchase when benifit from it is taken, The benifit from stock is taken when it is sold. So RM, WIP and FG are cost accounted as asset as they are still in pipeline and is to be sold in future.
2) Do these product costs ever become an expense to the company?
Yes, these cost become expenses when final goods are sold. Untill sale they are company asset, as asset is something from which future economic benifit is to taken or derived.