The 54 percentage of 40 inches is 21.6 inches
Answer: I think the answer is 16384!
Step-by-step explanation:
Hi , two equivalent fractions for 16/48 are 1/3 and 8/24. Equivalent fraction is a fraction that is the same but it has different numbers.
The answer is -34 cause if x is -7 and y is 3 then you know you switch em out and do the thing and get the answer.
There are several information's of immense importance in the problem. Based on these information's the answer to the question can be easily reached. The only thing that has to be kept in mind is the calculation part, otherwise it is a simple problem.
Now it is given that:
A large chocolate shake takes 8/9 of a pint of milk.
Then
Amount of milk required to make medium shake = (8/9) * (1/7) of a pint
= 8/63 of a pint
Then it can be said that for making a medium chocolate shake , 8/63 of a pint of milk is required. This is the simplest form of the fraction and it cannot be expressed as a mixed number since the denominator is higher than the numerator.
