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Zielflug [23.3K]
3 years ago
6

Motorsports, Inc. had a predetermined overhead rate of $2 per direct labor hour. The direct labor hours were estimated to be 25,

000. The actual manufacturing overhead incurred was $47,000 and 24,000 actual direct labor hours were worked. How much was overhead over/under applied last year
Business
1 answer:
Marat540 [252]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

$1,000

Explanation:

For the computation of overhead over/under applied last year first we need to find out the applied overhead which is shown below:-

Applied overhead = Actual direct labor × Per direct labor

= 24,000 × $2

= $48,000

Over applied overhead = Applied overhead - Actual overhead

= $48,000 - $47,000

= $1,000

Therefore for computing the overhead over/under applied last year we simply applied the above formula.

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ollegr [7]

Answer: $837

Explanation:

The following information can be gotten from the question:

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Premium of put option = $32 per share

From the above, the premium received will be:

= $35 - $32 = $3

Investors break even will then be:

= Purchase price - Premium received

= $840 - $3

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Consider a bundle of 325 brownies and 300 cookies. How do we label this production bundle?
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Fuzzy Tail Industries produces wooden picnic tables for fuzzy creatures (hamster and squirrel size are its most popular products
scoray [572]

Answer:

7.5 Years

Explanation:

The computation of the payback period of the given machine is shown below:

<u>Year       Initial outflow       Cash flow       Cumulative cash flow</u>

               (52000)  

1                                              10,000               10,000

2                                              10,000              20,000

3                                              10,000              30,000

4                                               8,000               38,000

5                                               8,000               46,000

6                                               2,000                48,000

7                                                2,000                50,000

8                                                4,000                 54000

9                                                4,000                 58000

10                                               4,000                 62000

Now the Payback period is

=  Completed years+ required cash ÷ annual cash inflow

= 7 years + 2000 ÷ 4000

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5 0
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Answer:

Quantity discounts can be taken advantage of for large lot sizes.

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The EOQ model assumptions:

the order of one item does not intervene with the other.

The order will arrive without delay and with a specific amount of goods.

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The EOQ does not consider the discount for large lot size, their formula does not consider the value of the goods:

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Its use: Demand of the good

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