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Zielflug [23.3K]
3 years ago
6

Motorsports, Inc. had a predetermined overhead rate of $2 per direct labor hour. The direct labor hours were estimated to be 25,

000. The actual manufacturing overhead incurred was $47,000 and 24,000 actual direct labor hours were worked. How much was overhead over/under applied last year
Business
1 answer:
Marat540 [252]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

$1,000

Explanation:

For the computation of overhead over/under applied last year first we need to find out the applied overhead which is shown below:-

Applied overhead = Actual direct labor × Per direct labor

= 24,000 × $2

= $48,000

Over applied overhead = Applied overhead - Actual overhead

= $48,000 - $47,000

= $1,000

Therefore for computing the overhead over/under applied last year we simply applied the above formula.

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During this stage of résumé review, employers use the résumé to guide interview questions
mr Goodwill [35]

Answer:

<h2>Yes, the resume give HR / Technical person to understand and spot questions from the resume.</h2>

Explanation:

Though the question is little incomplete, I would try to answer assuming about the interview phases especially this resume review.

Resume is the first thing which the interviewer would see before they see you (Eg. Resume from job portal, resume received through friends or other employee referral, resume received through job fairs, etc)

So the interviewer

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8 0
3 years ago
"refer to your way, inc. what type of products is sold at your way?"
hjlf
Your way, inc is a furniture store located in Dallas, Texas, United States, it makes unique and fine pieces of furnitures, they also repair and recover them. 
4 0
3 years ago
You want to buy your dream car which will cost you $5900. If you could invest your entire savings of $3500 at an annual interest
Liula [17]

Answer:

t = 4.607742347 years rounded off to 4.61 years

Explanation:

To calculate the number of years it will take an investment of $3500 to grow to $5900 at an annual interest rate of 12%, we will use the formula for the future value of cash flows. The formula can be written as follows,

Future value = Present value * (1+i)^t

Where,

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  • t is the time in years

Plugging in the values for future value, present value and i, we can calculate the t to be,

5900 = 3500 * (1+0.12)^t

5900 / 3500 = (1.12)^t

1.685714286 = 1.12^t

Taking log on both sides.

Ln(1.685714286)  /  Ln(1.12)  =  t

t = 4.607742347 years rounded off to 4.61 years

7 0
3 years ago
Purchasing power parity (ppp) is considered an __________ measurement poverty levels
Nastasia [14]

Purchasing power parity (ppp) is considered an objective measurement poverty levels.

Purchasing power parity:

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  • monetary and developmental. Timothy Callen the rate at which the equivalent amount of goods and services might be purchased in one country using the currency of the other at a certain exchange rate.
  • By taking the geometric mean of the pricing relationships between each pair of economies for the two varieties of rice, the basic-heading PPP for each pair of economies may be calculated directly. This comparison is bilateral.
  • China, despite still being a developing country, is thought to have the greatest PPP in the entire world. This is due to the country's economy being the largest in the world, despite the fact that the bulk of its population earn extremely low wages.

Learn more about Purchasing power parity here

brainly.com/question/14635386

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7 0
2 years ago
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kipiarov [429]

Answer:

Yes

Explanation:

The 0.01 percent of the deviation plus the 0.01 percent of the sales average is not enough to get to the $6,300 daily, which means that the factor of the increase sales is the advertising campaign.

4 0
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