1answer.
Ask question
Login Signup
Ask question
All categories
  • English
  • Mathematics
  • Social Studies
  • Business
  • History
  • Health
  • Geography
  • Biology
  • Physics
  • Chemistry
  • Computers and Technology
  • Arts
  • World Languages
  • Spanish
  • French
  • German
  • Advanced Placement (AP)
  • SAT
  • Medicine
  • Law
  • Engineering
katen-ka-za [31]
3 years ago
15

Select all the correct answers.

Mathematics
1 answer:
aliina [53]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

The inequality x3 − 14x2 + 48x − 1,680 ≤ 0 can be used to find pool’s length.

⇒The water level in the pool cannot exceed 14 feet.

Step-by-step explanation:

The question is on inequalities

Given;

Length= x ft

depth= x-6  ft

Width= x-8 ft

volume ≤ 1680 ft³

Forming the inequality to find length x of the pool

Volume= base area × depth

base area × depth ≤ volume

x(x-8) × (x-6) = 1680

(x²-8x )(x-6) = 1680

x(x²-8x) -6 (x²-8x)=1680

x³-8x²-6x²+48x=1680

x³-14x²+48x=1680

x³-14x²+48x-1680 ≤ 0

⇒The water level in the pool cannot exceed 14 feet...why?

taking the value of x at maximum to be 17 according to the graph, then maximum depth will be;

d=x-6 = 17-6=11 ft

⇒11 ft is less than 14ft

You might be interested in
Write the slope-intercept form of the equation of the line described.
Ad libitum [116K]

                                                  7)

Given the line

y=-x+2

We know that the slope-intercept form of the line equation is

y=mx+b

here

m is the slope and b is the intercept

Thus, the slope = -1

We know that the parallel lines have the same. Thus, the slope of the parallel line is: -1

Using point-slope of the line equation

y-y_1=m\left(x-x_1\right)

substituting the values m = -1 and the point (4, 0)

y-0 = -1 (x-4)

Writing in the slope-intercept form

y = -x+4

Thus, the slope-intercept form of the equation of the line equation parallel to y=-x+ 2 will be:

  • y = -x+4

                                                      8)

<em>Note: </em><em>Your line is a little bit unclear. But, I am assuming the</em>

<em>ine is: </em>y = -x-1

<em />

Given the assumed line

y = -x-1

We know that the slope-intercept form of the line equation is

y=mx+b

here

m is the slope and b is the intercept

Thus, the slope = m = -1

We know that a line perpendicular to another line contains a slope that is the negative reciprocal of the slope of the other line, such as:

slope = m = -1

perpendicular slope = – 1/m = -1/-1 = 1

Using point-slope of the line equation

y-y_1=m\left(x-x_1\right)

substituting the values m = 1 and the point (4, 3)

y - 3 = 1 (x-4)

Writing in the slope-intercept form

y-3 = x-4

y = x-4+3

y = x - 1

Thus, the slope-intercept form of the equation of the line equation perpendicular to y = -x-1 will be:

  • y = x - 1

5 0
3 years ago
during a basketball game jorell attempted 40 shots and made 18.He says he made 40% of the shots he took.Is Jorell correct?
Drupady [299]
18 is 45% of 40, so no he is incorrect
6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Please answer #4! Thank u
notka56 [123]

Answer: question (4)

its (B)

Step-by-step explanation:

a reflection across the x-axis, then a reflection across the y-axis.

3 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Y - 2/5 = 1 3/5 (plz show work)
Brums [2.3K]

Answer:

y=2

Step-by-step explanation:

that's the answer hope u understand it

7 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Help with q25 please. Thanks.​
Westkost [7]

First, I'll make f(x) = sin(px) + cos(px) because this expression shows up quite a lot, and such a substitution makes life a bit easier for us.

Let's apply the first derivative of this f(x) function.

f(x) = \sin(px)+\cos(px)\\\\f'(x) = \frac{d}{dx}[f(x)]\\\\f'(x) = \frac{d}{dx}[\sin(px)+\cos(px)]\\\\f'(x) = \frac{d}{dx}[\sin(px)]+\frac{d}{dx}[\cos(px)]\\\\f'(x) = p\cos(px)-p\sin(px)\\\\ f'(x) = p(\cos(px)-\sin(px))\\\\

Now apply the derivative to that to get the second derivative

f''(x) = \frac{d}{dx}[f'(x)]\\\\f''(x) = \frac{d}{dx}[p(\cos(px)-\sin(px))]\\\\ f''(x) = p*\left(\frac{d}{dx}[\cos(px)]-\frac{d}{dx}[\sin(px)]\right)\\\\ f''(x) = p*\left(-p\sin(px)-p\cos(px)\right)\\\\ f''(x) = -p^2*\left(\sin(px)+\cos(px)\right)\\\\ f''(x) = -p^2*f(x)\\\\

We can see that f '' (x) is just a scalar multiple of f(x). That multiple of course being -p^2.

Keep in mind that we haven't actually found dy/dx yet, or its second derivative counterpart either.

-----------------------------------

Let's compute dy/dx. We'll use f(x) as defined earlier.

y = \ln\left(\sin(px)+\cos(px)\right)\\\\y = \ln\left(f(x)\right)\\\\\frac{dy}{dx} = \frac{d}{dx}\left[y\right]\\\\\frac{dy}{dx} = \frac{d}{dx}\left[\ln\left(f(x)\right)\right]\\\\\frac{dy}{dx} = \frac{1}{f(x)}*\frac{d}{dx}\left[f(x)\right]\\\\\frac{dy}{dx} = \frac{f'(x)}{f(x)}\\\\

Use the chain rule here.

There's no need to plug in the expressions f(x) or f ' (x) as you'll see in the last section below.

Now use the quotient rule to find the second derivative of y

\frac{d^2y}{dx^2} = \frac{d}{dx}\left[\frac{dy}{dx}\right]\\\\\frac{d^2y}{dx^2} = \frac{d}{dx}\left[\frac{f'(x)}{f(x)}\right]\\\\\frac{d^2y}{dx^2} = \frac{f''(x)*f(x)-f'(x)*f'(x)}{(f(x))^2}\\\\\frac{d^2y}{dx^2} = \frac{f''(x)*f(x)-(f'(x))^2}{(f(x))^2}\\\\

If you need a refresher on the quotient rule, then

\frac{d}{dx}\left[\frac{P}{Q}\right] = \frac{P'*Q - P*Q'}{Q^2}\\\\

where P and Q are functions of x.

-----------------------------------

This then means

\frac{d^2y}{dx^2} + \left(\frac{dy}{dx}\right)^2 + p^2\\\\\frac{f''(x)*f(x)-(f'(x))^2}{(f(x))^2} + \left(\frac{f'(x)}{f(x)}\right)^2 + p^2\\\\\frac{f''(x)*f(x)-(f'(x))^2}{(f(x))^2} +\frac{(f'(x))^2}{(f(x))^2} + p^2\\\\\frac{f''(x)*f(x)-(f'(x))^2+(f'(x))^2}{(f(x))^2} + p^2\\\\\frac{f''(x)*f(x)}{(f(x))^2} + p^2\\\\

Note the cancellation of -(f ' (x))^2 with (f ' (x))^2

------------------------------------

Let's then replace f '' (x) with -p^2*f(x)

This allows us to form  ( f(x) )^2 in the numerator to cancel out with the denominator.

\frac{f''(x)*f(x)}{(f(x))^2} + p^2\\\\\frac{-p^2*f(x)*f(x)}{(f(x))^2} + p^2\\\\\frac{-p^2*(f(x))^2}{(f(x))^2} + p^2\\\\-p^2 + p^2\\\\0\\\\

So this concludes the proof that \frac{d^2y}{dx^2} + \left(\frac{dy}{dx}\right)^2 + p^2 = 0\\\\ when y = \ln\left(\sin(px)+\cos(px)\right)\\\\

Side note: This is an example of showing that the given y function is a solution to the given second order linear differential equation.

7 0
3 years ago
Other questions:
  • Help me! <br> Graph y=2x^2+5x-7
    14·1 answer
  • If a company has 245 shares of common stock and 275000 To be distributed to its holders, how many would Each share receive
    6·1 answer
  • The lifespan of a guinea pig is 6 years less than that of a giraffe. The lifespan of a tiger is 4 times that of the guinea pig.
    15·1 answer
  • The term that describes how long it takes a function to repeat its behavior is the
    15·2 answers
  • - Brainliest- friend me.A spinner is divided into four equal sections. Which situation can be represented using this simulation?
    10·1 answer
  • Please help me, i am horrible at geometry.
    11·2 answers
  • 3 – 2x ≥ 5 or 3(x – 2) + 1 &gt; 7
    8·2 answers
  • Someone help please
    14·1 answer
  • Help me please <br> I’ll make it brainliest !!!!!
    14·1 answer
  • Pliss solve and give evidence
    13·2 answers
Add answer
Login
Not registered? Fast signup
Signup
Login Signup
Ask question!