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Korolek [52]
2 years ago
10

What is y=-2/5x in standard form

Mathematics
1 answer:
VikaD [51]2 years ago
3 0

Standard form is x + y = number.

y = -2/5 x

y + 2/5 x = 0

2/5 x + y = 0

In standard form, the coefficient of x or y cannot be a fraction.

Therefore we have to multiply the whole equation by 5.

2x + 5y = 0

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If ∠4 = 98°, then ∠3 = ?<br> look at image
Ksju [112]

Step-by-step explanation:

∠4 = ∠1 & ∠2 = ∠3

360 - 2(98) = ∠2 + ∠3

∠3 = 164/2

∠3 = 82°

6 0
2 years ago
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Help with math plssssss!
Olenka [21]

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6 0
2 years ago
Solve each equation by factoring,<br>x² - 2x - 15 = 0​
valina [46]

Answer:

x=−3 or x=5

Step-by-step explanation:

x2−2x−15=0

Step 1: Factor left side of equation.

(x+3)(x−5)=0

Step 2: Set factors equal to 0.

x+3=0 or x−5=0

x=−3 or x=5

7 0
2 years ago
What is 9% of 42 pls help fast!
joja [24]

Answer:

3.78

Step-by-step explanation:

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 9 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with $x$.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that $100\%=9$.

Step 4: In the same vein, $x\%=42$.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

$100\%=9(1)$.

$x\%=42(2)$.

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS

(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

$\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{9}{42}$

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

$\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{42}{9}$

$\Rightarrow x=466.67\%$

Therefore, $42$ is $466.67\%$ of $9$.

4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Prove for any positive integer n, n^3 +11n is a multiple of 6
suter [353]

There are probably other ways to approach this, but I'll focus on a proof by induction.

The base case is that n = 1. Plugging this into the expression gets us

n^3+11n = 1^3+11(1) = 1+11 = 12

which is a multiple of 6. So that takes care of the base case.

----------------------------------

Now for the inductive step, which is often a tricky thing to grasp if you're not used to it. I recommend keeping at practice to get better familiar with these types of proofs.

The idea is this: assume that k^3+11k is a multiple of 6 for some integer k > 1

Based on that assumption, we need to prove that (k+1)^3+11(k+1) is also a multiple of 6. Note how I've replaced every k with k+1. This is the next value up after k.

If we can show that the (k+1)th case works, based on the assumption, then we've effectively wrapped up the inductive proof. Think of it like a chain of dominoes. One knocks over the other to take care of every case (aka every positive integer n)

-----------------------------------

Let's do a bit of algebra to say

(k+1)^3+11(k+1)

(k^3+3k^2+3k+1) + 11(k+1)

k^3+3k^2+3k+1+11k+11

(k^3+11k) + (3k^2+3k+12)

(k^3+11k) + 3(k^2+k+4)

At this point, we have the k^3+11k as the first group while we have 3(k^2+k+4) as the second group. We already know that k^3+11k is a multiple of 6, so we don't need to worry about it. We just need to show that 3(k^2+k+4) is also a multiple of 6. This means we need to show k^2+k+4 is a multiple of 2, i.e. it's even.

------------------------------------

If k is even, then k = 2m for some integer m

That means k^2+k+4 = (2m)^2+(2m)+4 = 4m^2+2m+4 = 2(m^2+m+2)

We can see that if k is even, then k^2+k+4 is also even.

If k is odd, then k = 2m+1 and

k^2+k+4 = (2m+1)^2+(2m+1)+4 = 4m^2+4m+1+2m+1+4 = 2(2m^2+3m+3)

That shows k^2+k+4 is even when k is odd.

-------------------------------------

In short, the last section shows that k^2+k+4 is always even for any integer

That then points to 3(k^2+k+4) being a multiple of 6

Which then further points to (k^3+11k) + 3(k^2+k+4) being a multiple of 6

It's a lot of work, but we've shown that (k+1)^3+11(k+1) is a multiple of 6 based on the assumption that k^3+11k is a multiple of 6.

This concludes the inductive step and overall the proof is done by this point.

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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