Answer:
yes
Step-by-step explanation:
As an example
(x₁, y₁ ) = (1,2) and (x₂, y₂ ) = (5,3), then
d = = = =
Now let (x₁, y₁ ) = (5,3) and (x₂, y₂ ) = (1,2), then
d = = = =
The answer is 9. if you wanna do it the long way buit a calculator is easier
Answer:
D
Step-by-step explanation:
Recall that the area of a triangle is given by:
In this case, the base is <em>x</em> and the height is <em>y</em>. Hence:
We can write the following ratios:
Solve for <em>x</em> and <em>y</em>:
Substitute:
And simplify. Hence:
In conclusion, our answer is D.
Answer:
<h2>
<em>angle</em><em> </em><em>of</em><em> </em><em>1</em><em> </em><em>will</em><em> </em><em>be</em><em> </em><em>6</em><em>0</em><em>°</em></h2>
Step-by-step explanation:
<h2 /><h2>
we know vertical opposite angle are equall so </h2><h2>
<em>angle</em><em> </em><em>1</em><em> </em><em>=</em><em> </em><em>6</em><em>0</em><em>°</em></h2>
Hi there!
To solve this problem, we should simplify.
0.06x - 0.18 = 0.12
First, we should add 0.18 to both sides:
0.06x = 0.12 + 0.18
0.06x = 0.3
Now, we can convert 0.06 into a fraction and multiply both sides of the equation by its receprical to isolate x:
0.06 = 6/100
6/100 × 100/6 = 1
0.3 × 100/6 = 30/6
x = 30/6
x = 15/3
x = 5
So, x is 5.
Hope this helps!