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Anastasy [175]
4 years ago
6

QUESTION 14 Which of the following bank accounts has the lowest effective annual return? a. An account that pays 8% nominal inte

rest with annual compounding. b. An account that pays 8% nominal interest with daily (365-day) compounding. c. An account that pays 7% nominal interest with daily (365-day) compounding. d. An account that pays 7% nominal interest with monthly compounding. e. An account that pays 8% nominal interest with monthly compounding.
Business
1 answer:
Whitepunk [10]4 years ago
5 0

Answer:

<u><em>lowest </em></u>effective annual return

b. An account that pays 7% nominal interest with monthly compounding

Explanation:

The reasoning is because lesstimes a rate compounds, less interest it generated:

So between daily and monthly compounding, the lower effective rate is monthly compounding

<u>The Compound interest formula:</u>

Principal * (1+ r)^{time} = Ammount

<u>The compound interest with subperiodic compounds:</u>

Principal * (1+ \frac{r}{n} )^{time* n} = Ammount

Assuming time and Principal equal to 1 and we got:

(1+ r) = Ammount

and

(1+ \frac{r}{n} )^{n} = Ammount

Using your numbers, you will notice that as more subperiodic compounds, the more it grows the ammounts.

Resuming: at equal rate and principal, the most compunding has higher effective rate.

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allochka39001 [22]

Answer: The amount of depreciation expense recognized in 2006, using the double declining balance method is $5,280.

And the journal entries required are:

Debit Depreciation expense                     $5,280

Credit Accumulated depreciation             $5,280

Explanation: The double-declining method is otherwise known as reducing balance method. It is usually derived by using the formula below:

Double-declining depreciation = 2 X SLDP X BV

Where SLDP = straight-line depreciation percentage

           BV = Book value of the asset (Cost minus depreciation)

So using the straight-line depreciation method, we need to remove the salvage value from the cost and then divided by 5 years. That is, ($22,000 - $4,000) / 5 years = $3,060 yearly depreciation expense.

However, under the double-declining method, we need to divide the 100% by the useful life of the asset first to get the SLDP then multiply by 2, that is, 100%/5 years = 20% x 2 = 40%.

So 40% x $22,000 in year 1 (December 31, 2005) is $8,800

In year 2 (December 31, 2006), 40% x $13,200 ($22,000 - $8,800) = $5,280 and so on. The depreciation expense would stop immediately it falls below the salvage value of $4,000.

So the book value of the asset at the end of year 2 is $7,920 ($13,200 - $4,000 accumulated depreciation).

5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
____ is a short-term debt instrument issued only by well-known, creditworthy firms and is normally issued to provide liquidity o
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Answer:

Commercial Paper.

Explanation:

A commercial Paper is an unsecured and negotiable money market instrument issued in the form of a promissory note. Are issued by companies to raise short term funds for meeting working capital requirements.

Benefits to the issuer:

-low interest expenses

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There are 11 truths in menu writing. These should be followed and in many case
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1 year ago
Russ and Linda are married and file a joint tax return claiming their three children, ages 4, 7, and 18, as dependents. Their ad
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The correct answer is:

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3 years ago
Suppose that consumer spending initially rises by $5 billion for every 1 percent rise in household wealth and that investment sp
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Answer:

left by 30 billons

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Explanation:

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