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UNO [17]
4 years ago
15

What is represented by p v q?

Mathematics
1 answer:
Stella [2.4K]4 years ago
4 0
\lor is the logical or/disjunction symbol. p\lor q means "p or q". Disjunction is commutative, which means p\lor q is equivalent to q\lor p.

So if p represents x and q represents x>3, then p\lor q\equiv q\lor p means x>3 or x.

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Need help real fast.
ira [324]

Answer:

option 4

Step-by-step explanation:

using the equation stated above

1st term = -6+(1-1=0)*(6)=-6

4th term= -6+(4-1=3)*6=12

10th term= -6+(10-1=9)*6=48

7 0
4 years ago
I need help.like now please help me !!!!!!!!!
koban [17]
Use proportions for all of them, for #1 use the proportion 12/30 = 9/a based on corresponding sides and then cross multiply. a=22.5 For #2 use the proportion y/35 = 64/40 based on corresponding sides and then cross multiply, y=56 For #3 use the proportion 42/? = 54/36 and then cross multiply, ?=28
7 0
3 years ago
Answer the very simple question below!
zalisa [80]

Answer: 14

Step-by-step explanation: just go to the opposite side of the interger and plz Brainlest would be much appreciated.

5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
For each given p, let ???? have a binomial distribution with parameters p and ????. Suppose that ???? is itself binomially distr
pshichka [43]

Answer:

See the proof below.

Step-by-step explanation:

Assuming this complete question: "For each given p, let Z have a binomial distribution with parameters p and N. Suppose that N is itself binomially distributed with parameters q and M. Formulate Z as a random sum and show that Z has a binomial distribution with parameters pq and M."

Solution to the problem

For this case we can assume that we have N independent variables X_i with the following distribution:

X_i Bin (1,p) = Be(p) bernoulli on this case with probability of success p, and all the N variables are independent distributed. We can define the random variable Z like this:

Z = \sum_{i=1}^N X_i

From the info given we know that N \sim Bin (M,q)

We need to proof that Z \sim Bin (M, pq) by the definition of binomial random variable then we need to show that:

E(Z) = Mpq

Var (Z) = Mpq(1-pq)

The deduction is based on the definition of independent random variables, we can do this:

E(Z) = E(N) E(X) = Mq (p)= Mpq

And for the variance of Z we can do this:

Var(Z)_ = E(N) Var(X) + Var (N) [E(X)]^2

Var(Z) =Mpq [p(1-p)] + Mq(1-q) p^2

And if we take common factor Mpq we got:

Var(Z) =Mpq [(1-p) + (1-q)p]= Mpq[1-p +p-pq]= Mpq[1-pq]

And as we can see then we can conclude that   Z \sim Bin (M, pq)

8 0
3 years ago
What is the 9th term of the sequence? 3,-12,48,-192,
Inessa [10]

D, 196,608.

The sequence is multiplying by -4 every time.

3 0
3 years ago
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