Answer:
The rate of change in 6 months is 14.87%
Explanation:
Let a be the amount that the money is multiplied in one month. We know that in 30 months it is multiplied by 2, so if we power a by 30 wew obtain 2:
a³⁰ = 2
Thus, 2 = a³⁰ = a⁶*⁵ = (a⁶)⁵
(here we use the propiety a^bc = (a^b)^c = (a^c)^b)
We can conclude that a⁶ = 2^(1/5) = 1.1487
The rate in 6 months is (1.1487-1)*100 = 14.87%
Answer:
1. B
2. A
Explanation:
1. the answer is lower higher.
when a note has been discounted, the person who issues it is going to get its value at maturity. in a situation where it does not bear interes, this is the face value and it is going to be reduced by discount. such that the cash received would be lower than the face value. but when it is repaid, effective rate would be higher than the value of the discount.
2. <u>a. The total future cash payments</u><u> </u><u>is</u> what be compared to the carrying amount of the debt to determine if the debtor should report a gain on restructuring. the other options do not answer this question.
Operating expenses are taken from the normal business operation such as administrative or selling expense. It is part of the operating cost. Markup is defined as the amount added to the cost of goods to fix a selling price. So, to answer the question above: True.
Answer:
A. Higher in Country A
Explanation:
So to get per capita income
Formula
GDP/Population
Therefore
For Country A
440/100=4.4
Per capita income for country A is 4.4
For Country B
560/175=3.2
Per capita income for country B is 3.2
So the per capita income for country A is higher than Country B
Answer:
$46.43
Explanation:
Calculation for Below what stock price level would you get a margin call
First step is to calculate the Loan amount
Loan amount=(100 shares × $130 × 0.5
Loan amount= $6,500 × 0.5 = $3,250
Now let calculate Stock price level
0.30 = (100P $3,250)/100P
30 - P = 100P - $3,250
30-100P= - $3,250
-70P = -$3,250
P=$3,250/70
P = $46.43
Therefore Below what stock price level would you get a margin call will be $46.43
