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3 years ago

Markup represents an amount needed to cover operating expenses. a. True b. False

1 answer:

8 0

Operating expenses are taken from the normal business operation such as administrative or selling expense. It is part of the operating cost. Markup is defined as the amount added to the cost of goods to fix a selling price. So, to answer the question above: True.

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your organization entered into an interoperability agreement (ia) with another organization a year ago. as a part of this agreem

Nadusha1986 [10]

The term "Interoperability Agreement" refers to a contract between MDTA and one or more other toll account providers that outlines the protocols and arrangements

under which the parties agree to pay each other for all toll transactions that comply with the agreement's requirements for transmission, debiting, and payment and that must be included in the current payment cycle. Both the IAG and regional interoperability agreements are part of these accords.The Metropolitan Clearing Corporation of India Ltd. (MCCIL), Metropolitan Stock Exchange of India Limited (MSE), NSE Clearing Limited (NCL), National Stock Exchange of India Limited (NSE), Indian Clearing Corporation Limited (ICCL),

learn more about interoperability agreements here:

brainly.com/question/20738512

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8 0

1 year ago

"Dream, Inc., has debt outstanding with a face value of $4 million. The value of the firm if it were entirely financed by equity

Artist 52 [7]

Answer:

expected bankruptcy costs = $190000

Explanation:

given data

face value = $4 million

equity = $18.6 million

stock outstanding = 510000 shares

sell price = $31 per share

corporate tax rate = 35 percent

to find out

decrease in the value of the company due to expected bankruptcy costs

solution

we get here value of levered firmed by M & M proportion

value of levered firm = value of equity + value of debit

value of levered firm = $18.6 million + 35% ( $4 million)

value of levered firm = $20 million

and

now we get total market value of firm that is

total market value of firm = market value of equity + market value of debit

total market value of firm = $31 ( 510000 ) + $4 million

total market value of firm = $19810000

so expected bankruptcy costs are here as

expected bankruptcy costs = $20 million - $19810000

expected bankruptcy costs = $190000

7 0

3 years ago

What form of payment is directly tied to a customer's bank account?

r-ruslan [8.4K]

I’m sure it’s B. Debit Card

6 0

3 years ago

Once a project is underway, the project manager is responsible for the:_______a. people. b. cost. c. time. d. All of these

kati45 [8]

Answer:

I think the answer is D. All of the above

Explanation:

5 0

3 years ago

Conventional wisdom says one should measure a manager's investment performance over an entire market cycle. What arguments suppo

White raven [17]

Answer:

In every form of analysis, it is always safer to take a macro or holistic view of the situation. This is true for the investment performance of a manager. One investment decision that went right does not suffice to classify an investment portfolio manager as proficient, neither is one that went south enough to tag him deficient.

The forecasting ability of managers, on the balance of probability, will vary for different cases, with a helicopter view of providing a more accurate measure of their performance.

However, if it was possible to analyse the market for volatility and adjust our forecasts it becomes unnecessary to look at and analyse all the information from a 12-month cycle before coming to terms about the performance of the manager.

Cheers!

4 0

3 years ago