Answer:
3.73%
Explanation:
The computation of the rate of interest that makes the equivalent is shown below:
As we know that
Present value=Cash flow × Present value discounting factor ( interest rate% , time period)
Let us assume the interest rate be x
where,
Present value of $400,000 is
= $400,000 ÷ 1.0x ^5
And,
Present value of $1,000,000 be
= $1,000,000 ÷ 1.0x^30
Now eqaute these two equations
$400,000 ÷ 1.0x^5 = $1,000,000 ÷ 1.0x^30
(1.0x^30) ÷ (1.0x^5) = $1,000,000 ÷ $400,000
1.0x^(30 - 5)=2.5
1.0x^25=2.5
1.0x = (2.5)^(1 ÷ 25)
x =1.03733158 - 1
= 3.73%
Answer: reduced by $80 billion
Explanation:
An expansionary gap is when the actual output is more than the potential output. From the question, we are told that an economy is operating with output $400 billion above its natural level, and fiscal policymakers want to close this expansionary gap and that the central bank agrees to adjust the money supply to hold the interest rate constant, so there is no crowding out.
We are also given the marginal propensity to consume is 4/5, and told that the price level is completely fixed in the short run.
To close the expansionary gap, the government would need to reduce its spending. To solve this, we have to calculate the multiplier. This will be:
Multiplier = 1/(1 - MPC)
= 1/(1 - 4/5)
= 1/1-0.8
= 1/0.2
= 5
Therefore, the government expenditure or spending will be reduced by:
= $400 billion/5
=$80 billion
Answer:
it has grown substantially
Explanation:
in the past, China's government has total control over other economy. They failed to run it efficiently since the system provide no incentives for people to work harder and invents new things.
In the 1980s, china started to adopted some aspect of Capitalism and let the private sector grow their influence in the economy.
As a result, many people start to have incentives to contribute more to the economy. This system basically allowed the citizens seek personal wealth for themselves, but they are indirectly improving the country's economy.
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