It is an alphabet adapted from the Greeks that is used for Slavic languages.
Mexico at first did not allow the people of Texas to own slaves. After winning independence and however, Texas allowed slavery. Once slavery was allowed, after a few years of independence, texas asked to enter the US as a slave state.
So Texas went from a territory of Mexico that had slavery banned to a state in the US with slavery (after independence)
hope this helps
The answer to this statement is B
Answer:
a plantation owner in the low country
Explanation:
The Democratic-Republican party was one of the two most common parties in the 1700s in the United States.
The party which differs from the Federalist party in policies and ideologies favored the idea of making the United States economy built on agriculture with the hope that the United States would be the agricultural provider for all foreign countries across the globe.
The party also favored all U.S. families to possess their personal farm.
Hence, "a plantation owner in the low country" would have most likely supported the Democratic-Republican Party in the late 1700s
