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Alenkasestr [34]
3 years ago
9

Is tan^-1(a) equivalent to (tan(a))^-1? explain why or why not.

Mathematics
1 answer:
BARSIC [14]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

  No. The reciprocal of a function is rarely the same as the inverse of the function.

Step-by-step explanation:

tan^1(a) signifies the arctangent function, the function that returns the angle for a given tangent value of a.

tan(a)^-1 signifies the reciprocal of the tangent function, which is the definition of the cotangent function.

The attached graph compares the two functions.

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