Answer:
B. The payback is approximately three years
Explanation:
The computation of payback period for this equipment purchase is shown below:-
<u>Year Cash flow Cumulative cash flow</u>
0 -$600,000 -$600,000
1 $250,000 -$350,000
2 $200,000 -$150,000
($250,000 - $50,000)
3 $150,000 0
($200,000 - $50,000)
4 $100,000 $100,000
($150,000 - $50,000)
5 $50,000 $150,000
($100,000 - $50,000)
Here, Cumulative cash flow in the year o is -$600,000 and as we can see that cumulative cash flow in year 3 is 0.
Therefore the payback period lies in 3 years.
Answer:
The correct answer is option D.
Explanation:
A purely domestic firm can face competition from an MNC. An MNC has the advantage of more than one sources of inputs and more than one product market. But the domestic firm also possesses an advantage of having a thorough knowledge of the local market as they have operated there unlike MNCs.
The domestic even though operating in the domestic territories may still face foreign exchange risk. This is because their competitors may be operating internationally.
Answer:
a. 27.9%
Explanation:
The formula and the computation of the gross profit are shown below:
Gross profit = (Gross profit) ÷ (Sales) × 100
where,
Gross profit = $1,604
And, the sales revenue is $5,742
So, the gross profit is
= ($1,604) ÷ ($5,742) × 100
= 27.9%
By dividing the gross profit by the sales we can get the gross profit
Answer:
changes in private savings offset any changes in the government deficit
Explanation:
Ricardian equivalence means that private saving changes offset any changes in the government budget. Therefore, if the deficit increases by 30, private saving also increases by 30 but the trade deficit and the budget deficit will not change.
In case of the Ricardian equivalence, economic agents are assumed to be perfectly rational. According to them, higher taxes are required to repay the debt in case of an increase in deficit-financed government spending.
