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solong [7]
3 years ago
11

What is another way to write this number? 300 plus 70 plus 5/10 plus 8/100

Mathematics
2 answers:
artcher [175]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

30,000% plus 7,000% plus 50% plus 8%

Step-by-step explanation:

irakobra [83]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

300+70+.5+.008

or

370.508

Step-by-step explanation:

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Harry earned ₹40,000 for 80 days of work. He was paid an equal amount each day. How much did he earn per day?
Katyanochek1 [597]

Answer: ₹500

Step-by-step explanation:

Harry earned ₹500 every day.

₹40,000 ÷ 80 = ₹500

₹40,000 divided by 80 will turn 80 days to 1 day which answers your question.

4 0
2 years ago
P(X< ) 1-P(X> ) A softball pitcher has a 0.626 probability of throwing a strike for each curve ball pitch. If the softball
Mashutka [201]

Answer:

19.49% probability that no more than 16 of them are strikes

Step-by-step explanation:

Binomial probability distribution

Probability of exactly x sucesses on n repeated trials, with p probability.

Can be approximated to a normal distribution, using the expected value and the standard deviation.

The expected value of the binomial distribution is:

E(X) = np

The standard deviation of the binomial distribution is:

\sqrt{V(X)} = \sqrt{np(1-p)}

Normal probability distribution

Problems of normally distributed samples can be solved using the z-score formula.

In a set with mean \mu and standard deviation \sigma, the zscore of a measure X is given by:

Z = \frac{X - \mu}{\sigma}

The Z-score measures how many standard deviations the measure is from the mean. After finding the Z-score, we look at the z-score table and find the p-value associated with this z-score. This p-value is the probability that the value of the measure is smaller than X, that is, the percentile of X. Subtracting 1 by the pvalue, we get the probability that the value of the measure is greater than X.

When we are approximating a binomial distribution to a normal one, we have that \mu = E(X), \sigma = \sqrt{V(X)}.

In this problem, we have that:

n = 30, p = 0.626

So

\mu = E(X) = np = 30*0.626 = 18.78

\sigma = \sqrt{V(X)} = \sqrt{np(1-p)} = \sqrt{30*0.626*0.374} = 2.65

What is the probability that no more than 16 of them are strikes?

Using continuity correction, this is P(X \leq 16 + 0.5) = P(X \leq 16.5), which is the pvalue of Z when X = 16.5. So

Z = \frac{X - \mu}{\sigma}

Z = \frac{16.5 - 18.78}{2.65}

Z = -0.86

Z = -0.86 has a pvalue of 0.1949

19.49% probability that no more than 16 of them are strikes

7 0
2 years ago
What is the value of d to the nearest tenth
Gelneren [198K]
The answer is 72.1.you should dot infront sizes and then equals them
6 0
2 years ago
PLS HELP WILL MARK YOU BRAINLIEST! NO FAKE ANSWERS!!<br> WHAT IS M∠1?
TEA [102]

Answer:

angle 1=135°

Step-by-step explanation:

to find the angle of 1 you should know angle 2, what is angle 2?

angle 45° and angle 1 are symetrical so they have the same value.

now that we know that angle 2 is equal to 45°

then what is angle 1

if the whole line has an angle of 180° and angle 45°.

so the equation will be :

45+x=180

flip the equation to find x:

180-45=x

180-45=x\\135=x\\x=the angle 1 which we found in the given equation is 135

check if my answer is correct is :

135+45=180\\180=180

my equation is correct

8 0
2 years ago
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mix 2parts red with 3parts cream and 1part blue how much cream and blue paint do i need to mix with 4litres of red
vagabundo [1.1K]
The 4 litres of red has to be 2 parts of the mixture, so each part will be 2 litres. Therefore 3 parts of cream will be 6 litres and the one part of blue will be 2 litres.
7 0
3 years ago
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