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balandron [24]
4 years ago
9

It is argued that a policy of tax simplification will result​ in: A. A shift from LRAS 2 to LRAS 1 with a higher price level and

lower output. B. A shift from LRAS 1 to LRAS 2 with higher output at a lower price level. C. A shift from LRAS 1 to LRAS 2 with lower output at a lower price level. D. A shift from LRAS 2 to LRAS 1 with a lower price level and higher output.

Business
1 answer:
Keith_Richards [23]4 years ago
4 0

Answer:

B. A shift from LRAS 1 to LRAS 2 with higher output at a lower price level

Explanation:

When there is a tax simplification in the economy, there would be an increase in the labour supply, saving and investment in the economy, contributing to the enhancement of the economic efficiency. So that it would also make the quantity of real GDP supplied increased, shifting the LRAS1 to the right to LRAS2 with higher output (higher GDP) and the aggregate demand remains unchanged.

Initially, the market is at the equilibrium at point A: Price = P1; Output = Q1

According to the graph attached, when the AD curve stands still, the LRAS shifts to the right, the market moves to the new equilibrium at point B: Output = Q2 > Q1; Price = P2 < P1

So that, the tax simplification results in a shift from LRAS 1 to LRAS 2 with higher output at a lower price level. (Answer B)

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Answer:

Explanation:

Accounts payable is included in the current liability according to international financial reporting standards (IFRS). Although the construction loan was actually payable at year-end, if the company has both the willingness and ability to refinance with long-term debt, the $100,000 construction loan may be included at year-end in long-term liabilities. Therefore, current liabilities of $30,000 and long-term liabilities of $100,000 should be reported on the balance sheet.

The extracts of the statement of financial positions are given below:

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4 years ago
AMC Corporation currently has an enterprise value (EV) of $400 million and $100 million in excess cash. The firm has 10 million
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Answer:

a. AMC's share price prior to the share repurchase is $ 50 per share

b. AMC's share price after the repurchase if its enterprise value goes up is $75.00 per share

Explanation:

a. In order to calculate AMC's share price prior to the share repurchase we would have to make the following calculation:

AMC's share price prior to the share repurchase=Market Capitalization/Number of shares outstanding

According to the given data Number of shares outstanding=10 million shares

Market Capitalization=Enterprise Value + Cash in Hand

Market Capitalization=$400 million + $100 million

Market Capitalization=$500 million

Therefore, AMC's share price prior to the share repurchase=$500 Million / 10 million shares

AMC's share price prior to the share repurchase= $ 50 per share

b. To calculate AMC's share price after the repurchase if its enterprise value goes up we would have to make the following calculation:

AMC's share price after the repurchase if its enterprise value goes up=Market Capitalization/Number of shares outstanding after repurchase

According to the given data After the share repurchase, news will come out that will change AMC's enterprise value to $600 million, hence, Market Capitalization=$600 million

Number of shares outstanding after repurchase=Number of shares outstanding-Number of shares repurchased

Number of shares repurchased= Cash used for repurchase / Market Price per share

Number of shares repurchased=$ 100 million / $ 50 per share

Number of shares repurchased= 2 million shares

Hence, Number of shares outstanding after repurchase=10 million - 2 million

Number of shares outstanding after repurchase=8 million

Therefore, AMC's share price after the repurchase if its enterprise value goes up=$600 million/ 8 million

AMC's share price after the repurchase if its enterprise value goes up=$75.00 per share

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Answer:

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