Answer:
f inverse of x is equal to 3 to the power of the quantity x plus 6 end quantity minus 5 all over 4
Step-by-step explanation:
The function
can be thought of as a series of steps, one operation at a time:
Start with x
Multiply by 4
Add 5
Take the 
Subtract 6
That gives you a function value
.
To get the inverse function, read that list from the bottom up (in reverse order, using inverse operations at each step).
Start with x (a bit confusing, because this x represents the function value you get at the end of the above list).
Add 6 (add is the inverse operation of subtract)
Raise 3 to the ... 
Subtract 5
Divide by 4

Let's test this out. Find f(1).

Now put -4 into the inverse function.

The final result is the number we started with when we put 1 into <em>f</em>(<em>x</em>).
Finding an inverse is reversing the action of the function <em>f</em> by doing inverse operations in "backwards" order.
A lot of authors have you do this by switching x and y in the formula for a function, then solving for <em>x</em>.

Answer:
dam well try to join in conversations and well be yourself not like nerd let yourself feel new things and act cool not like really clingy or to happy.
Step-by-step explanation:
Let x be the probability of winning and let y be the probability of losing. Then we can write the following equation:
2x - y = -0.65 ..............(1)
the sum of the probabilities of winning and losing must equal 1.
x + y = 1............(2)
Rearranging (2), gives:
y = 1 - x ............(3)
Plugging the expression for y from (3) into (1), we get:
2x - 1 + x = -0.65
which simplifies to:
3x = 0.35
Therefore x = 0.117 and y = 0.883.
The expected value of the game will be a loss of 65 cents if the probability of winning is 0.117 and the probability of losing is 0.883.
I. about 70 m; ii. 8 s; iii. because the line is straight and and going up at a constant rate; I hope I helped with the first three questions:)