Answer:
B and D it ez
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
A, B, C
Step-by-step explanation:
The top right corner is the positive side of the graph. If it goes below the X axis or to left of the Y axis, it is negative. (thus, the negative numbers)
Answer:
(0,-1),(1,0),(2,1),(3,2)
Step-by-step explanation:
We are given that a relation
y=x+1y=x+1
We have to find the four points contained in the inverse
The given function is linear function
Therefore,
Domain of function=R
Range of function=R
x=y-1x=y−1
Now, replace x by y and y replace by x
y=x-1y=x−1
Now, substitute y=f^{-1}(x)=f
−1
(x)
f^{-1}(x)=x-1f
−1
(x)=x−1
It is linear function and defined for all real values.
Substitute x=0
f^{-1}(0)=-1f
−1
(0)=−1
Substitute x=1
f^{-1}(1)=1-1=0f
−1
(1)=1−1=0
f^{-1}(2)=2-1=1f
−1
(2)=2−1=1
f^{-1}(3)=3-1=2f
−1
(3)=3−1=2
Therefore, four points contained in the inverse (0,-1),(1,0),(2,1) and (3,2)
Answer:
5x+8y
Step-by-step explanation:
Hope Your Thanksgiving Went Well, Here's Some Help Cleaning Up
-TheKoolKid1O1
A 52-card deck is made up of an equal number of diamonds, hearts, spades, and clubs. Because there are 4 suits, there is a 1/4 chance to draw one of them, in our case, spades.
There are 4 aces in a 52-card deck, so the chance of drawing one is 4/52, or 1/13.
The question asks for the probability of drawing an ace or a spade. Because it uses the word "or," we add the probabilities together. This is because there is a chance of drawing either of the cards; it doesn't have to meet both requirements to satisfy the statement.
However, if the question were to say "and," we would multiply the two probabilities.
Let's add 1/4 and 1/13. First, we can find a common denominator. We can use 52 because both fractions can multiply into it (since the ratio came from a deck of 52 cards as well).


Now we can add them together.

This cannot be simplified further, so the probability is 17 in 52, or 33%.
hope this helps!