Answer:
a-1) Pv = 52549
a-2) Pv = 56822
b-1) Fv = 77570
b-2 Fv = 83878
Explanation:
b-1) Future value:
S= Sum of amount of annuity=?
n=number of fixed periods=5 years
R=Fixed regular payments=13200
i=Compound interest rate= .081 (suppose annualy)
we know that ordinary annuity:
S= R [(1+i)∧n-1)]/i
= 13200[(1+.081)∧5-1]/.081
=13200(1.476-1)/.081
= 13200 * 5.8765
S = 77570
a.1)Present value of ordinary annuity:
Formula: Present value = C* [(1-(1+i)∧-n)]/i
=13200 * [(1-(1+.081)∧-5]/.081
=13200 * (1-.6774)/.081
=13200 * (.3225/.081)
=52549
a.2)Present value of ordinary Due:
Formula : Present value = C * [(1-(1+i)∧-n)]/i * (1+i)
= 13200 * [(1- (1+.081)∧-5)/.081 * (1+.081)
= 13200 * 3.9822 * 1.081
= 56822
b-2) Future value=?
we know that: S= R [(1+i)∧n+1)-1]/i ] -R
= 13200[ [ (1+.081)∧ 5+1 ]-1/.081] - 13200
= 13200 (.5957/.081) -13200
= (13200 * 7.3544)-13200
= 97078 - 13200
= 83878
The correcto answer for this question is the letter c
The factory overhead applied to the product is $5,400
Let understand that Factory Overhead means the <em>total cost</em> that is used in operating all the production segment (i.e depreciation of equipment, salary, wages, electricity) of a manufacturing company and its does not include the costs of direct labor & materials.
- <em>Factory Labor Incurred equals $8,000 (including $6,000 direct and $2,000 indirect</em>
<em>- Manufacturing Overhead is applied to the product based on 90% of direct labor dollars</em>
<em />
- Therefore, the Factory overhead applied will equals Direct factory labor incurred * 90% Overhead applied
<em />
<em>Factory overhead applied = $6,000 * 90%</em>
<em>Factory overhead applied = $5,400</em>
<em />
In conclusion, the factory overhead applied to the product is $5,400
See similar Factory overhead here
<em>brainly.com/question/14330080</em>
Answer:
The Journal entry at the beginning of the year is as follows:
Estimated revenue A/c Dr. $1,342,500
Estimated other financing sources-Bonds proceeds A/c Dr. $595,000
To Appropriations control $960,000
To Appropriations-Other financing uses-operating transfer outs $532,500
To Budgetary fund Bal. $445,000
(To record entry at the beginning of the year)
Answer:
a.Operating Cycle = Inventory Conversion period + Days Sales Outstanding = 100 + 35 = 135 Days
Cash Conversion Cycle = Inventory Conversion period + Days Sales Outstanding - Days Payables Outstanding
= 100 + 35 - 11 = 124 Days
b.If Carraway were to decide to take full advantage of its credit terms and delay payment until the last possible date , their cash conversion cycle is 100 + 35 - 51 = 84 Days
c.Carraway should take its suppliers offer to finance its inventory with the interest free 35 Day loan
