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Helen [10]
3 years ago
13

Suppose that instead of using a forward contract, you consider using options. A one-year call option to buy euros at a strike pr

ice of $1.25/€ is trading for $0.10/€. Similarly a one year put option to sell euros at a strike price of $1.25/€ is trading for $0.10/€. To hedge the risk of your profits, should you buy or sell the call or the put?
Business
1 answer:
Stells [14]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

Sell the put option. The put option is better and advantageous .

Explanation:

The call option is trading far below the strike price and poses risk. The price may not go up to $1.25 and hence not advisable. The put option is better as we stand to make a profit margin ($1.15 / Euro) if it sells the put at he strike price immediately. Given that the difference is high, it is unlikely that the price will move against us and we shall exercise the option as soon as the margin starts reducing.

You might be interested in
Fabiola, who lives in mexico city, fills her car with gas, paying 357 pesos for 40.0 l. what is her fuel cost in dollars per gal
77julia77 [94]

Answer:

Fabiola pays 27.0963 dollars for 8.79877 gallons of fuel.

Step-by-step explanation:

We are given that,

Fabiola pays 357 pesos for 40 liters of fuel.

It is required to convert the amount in dollars.

Since, we know that,

1 peso = 0.0759 dollars

So, 357 pesos = 0.0759 × 357 = 27.0963 dollars

Moreover,

1 liter = 0.219969 gallons

So, 40 liters = 0.219969 × 40 = 8.79877 gallons

Thus, we get that,

Fabiola pays 27.0963 dollars for 8.79877 gallons of fuel.

4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
A company's days' cash on hand is computed by dividing:​ Group of answer choices ​cash and short-term investments by daily cash
Romashka-Z-Leto [24]

Answer:

The answer is A. ​cash and short-term investments by daily cash operating expenses

Explanation:

This is calculated as follows:

cash and short-term investments(cash equivalents) ÷ daily cash operating expenses.

Cash equivalents are very short-term securities. They are very liquid and can be converted to cash very quickly. Examples are bank accounts short-term securities like treasury bills.

Days cash on hand is the number of days that a firm can afford to pay its operating expenses, given the amount of cash available.

5 0
3 years ago
Estimated expenses of liquidation were $10,000. Henry, Isaac, and Jacobs shared profits and losses in a ratio of 2:4:4. Before l
stealth61 [152]

<u>Solution and Explanation:</u>

The total amount of cash available for safe payments would be $25,000 (90,000 - 60,000 - 5,000). This amount will be distributed between Henry and Jacobs in the ratio of 6:4 meaning that $15,000 (25,000*60%) will be given to Henry and $10,000 (25,000*40%) will be given to Jacobs.

The value of $120,000 will be distributed to the partners as follows:

                                  Henry                Issac             Jacobs

Equity                           80,000                 110,000           140,000

Less Loss on Assets  36,000                  72,000              72,000

Liquidation Expenses  1,000                      2,000          2,000

Balances                   43,000                   36,000          66,000

Less Distribution

of Safe Payments to Partners 15,000                  0             10,000

Net Balances                    $28,000  $36,000  $56,000

4 0
3 years ago
The payment of accounts payable would
Tema [17]
Decrease assets, decrease liabilities. Accounts payable are what the business owes (liabilities). By paying off accounts payable, the liabilities are decreasing (they owe less) and the assets are also decreasing (because they use assets/cash to pay off the liabilities, so they have less now).

Hope that helps
3 0
3 years ago
The following information is available for Patrick Products for the year: Budgeted sales during the year 5,000 units Actual sale
cupoosta [38]

Answer:

$125,000 Adverse variance as the cost actually incurred is higher.

Explanation:

The first step here is to find the Flexed Variable Overhead Cost by using the unitary method:

Budgeted overhead cost for 10,000 budgeted hrs = $2500,000

Budgeted overhead cost for 1 budgeted hrs = $2500,000 / 10000 bud. hrs

Budgeted overhead cost for 1 budgeted hrs = $250 per standard hr

And as we know that

Flexed Variable Overhead Budget = Actual Units * Budgeted overhead cost for standard hr

By simply putting values we have:

Flexed Variable Overhead Budget = 9000 hours * $250 per standard hr

= $2,2500,000

Now we will find the Flexible-budget Variable Overhead Variance by taking the difference of Variable overhead flexible budget and Actual Variable Overhead.

Flexible-budget Variable Overhead Variance = Variable overhead flexible budget - Actual Variable Overhead

By putting the values we have:

Flexible-budget Variable Overhead Variance = $2,2500,000 - $2,375,000

= $125,000 Adverse variance as the cost actually incurred is higher.

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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