The correct answer is A) alignment.
After spending months finalizing a marketing plan, the lead marketing manager presents it to the entire company. It soon becomes clear that the budget given in the plan is far lower than the marketing team had determined it would need. This mistake is likely a result of a lack of alignment.
This means that the marketing manager did not respect the parameters originally indicated. His numbers did not align with the necessities of the plan, which means that he did not take into consideration some important factors that at the end, affected the end result of the budget.
Answer:
There is not gain in this operation so the answer is $0
Explanation:
There are some journal entries that needs to be done to have a full picture of the statement
* Purchase
Fixed Assets 690.000
Cash 690.000
* Monthly depreciation
Since, the FA was depreciated during 8 years. Firstly you have to calculate the amount that can be depreciate on a monthly basis
Amount to be depreciated = (Cost of the FA - Salvage value) = (690.000-48.600) = 641.400
Then calculate the yearly depreciation
Yearly depreciation = ((amount to be depreciated/useful life) * years used) =
(641.400/10*8) = 513.120
then the journal entry to record the monthly depreciation for 8 years is
Depreciation expense 513.120
Acc Depreciation 513.120
* Post the Journal Entry to record the sell of FA
You have to reverse the Acc Depreciation and credit the FA
Cash 152.500
Fixed assets 690.000
Acc depreciation 513.120
Loss on sale of FA 24.380
Answer:
Cost of external equity= 26.9%
Explanation
<em>According to the dividend valuation, the value of a stock is the present value of expected future dividends discounted at the required rate of return.</em>
The model can me modified to determined the cost of equity having flotation cost as follows:
Ke = D(1+r )/P(1-f) + g
Ke= Cost of equity
D- current dividend,
D(1+g) - dividend next year
p- price of stock - 31,00$
f - flotation cost - 14%
g- growth rate - 7%
Ke= 5.30/31× (1-0.14) + 0.07
= 0.2687997 × 100
= 26.9%
Answer:
$1,482 unfavorable
Explanation:
Calculation to determine the variable overhead flexible-budget variance
Using this formula
Variable overhead flexible-budget variance=Variable overhead spending variance Unfavorable + Variable overhead efficiency variance Unfavorable
Let plug in the formula
Variable overhead flexible-budget variance=$1,300 (U) + $182 (U)
Variable overhead flexible-budget variance= $1,482 (U)
Therefore the variable overhead flexible-budget variance is $1,482 unfavorable
The term you are looking for is <span>maximum possible loss.</span>
