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Gelneren [198K]
3 years ago
15

Target profit a.are when sales and costs are exactly equal. b.can be calculated by modifying the break-even equation. c.equals d

ifferential costs. d.cannot be calculated in cost-volume-profit analysis.
Business
1 answer:
Irina-Kira [14]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

b. can be calculated by modifying the break-even equation.

Explanation:

As the name implies, target profit can be explained to be the certain amount a business enterprise or a business organisation targets to hit at the end of its sales or at the end of her business dealings.

It can be easily seen in a cash flow planning as it is once modified to approximate cash flow, and also used for revealing expected results to investors and lenders. In all that it is been used for, in the scenario above, it also can be calculated by modifying the break-even equation, and deriving more conservative budgeting packages in business development too.

Adjust the contribution margin per unit and units sold based on an expected sales promotion.

Alter the fixed cost total and the contribution margin per unit for the effects of outsourcing production.

Alter the contribution margin for the effects of changing to a just-in-time production system.

If there is continually a large unfavorable variance between the target and actual profit, it may be necessary to examine the system used to derive the target profit,

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Given the following information, analyze XYZ Company's liquidity. Year 2013 Total quick assets $30,000 Total current assets $40,
kogti [31]

Answer:

  • A. They are more liquid than others in their industry.
  • C. They have sufficient quick assets to pay off short-term debt if needed.

Explanation:

The Acid-test and current ratios are used to measure the liquidity of a company with higher figures meaning more liquidity. XYZ Company has a both a higher acid-test and current ratio so they are more liquid than others in their industry.

The Acid-test and current ratio also enable one to find out if a company is able to pay off its current obligations/ liabilities using current assets. With the acid-test ratio being above one, XYZ is able to pay off short-term debt using quick assets.

6 0
3 years ago
If investors expect inflation to increase over the next 20 years and the maturity risk premium is expected to increase over the
olganol [36]

Answer: normal /upward sloping

Explanation:

The yield curve is a curve that shows the relationship that exist between interest rate and time to maturity. According to the expectation theory, it is stated that the yield curve will be upward sloping when there's increase in inflationary expectations.

The slope of the yield curve helps in giving a clue to know the direction of future interest rates. It should be noted that an upward sloping curve means that there is an expectation of higher interest rates in the future.

Therefore, when investors expect inflation to increase over the next 20 years and the maturity risk premium to increase over the next 5 years, the general yield curve will be upward sloping.

5 0
3 years ago
Abc manufacturers conducts commercial transactions across national boundaries. abc manufacturers would be classified as a(n) ___
Elina [12.6K]
The answer to this question is "International Business". This would be the classification when the ABC manufacturers conduct commercial transactions across the national boundaries. The international business includes all private and public commercial transactions between two or more regions which these regions are covered by the same political territories. The commercial transactions could include any form of investments, logistic, sales, and others.
7 0
3 years ago
at the end of the current year, using the aging of accounts receivable method, management estimated that $16,500 of the accounts
Furkat [3]

The adjusting entry that the company should pass at the end of the current year to record the bad debts expense:

Bad Debts Expense 16,900

Allowance for Doubtful Accounts  16,900

<h3>What is an allowance for doubtful accounts?</h3>

A contra account called an allowance for doubtful accounts nets against the total receivables shown on the balance sheet to only show the amounts anticipated to be paid. The percentage of accounts receivable that are anticipated to be uncollectible is estimated by the allowance for doubtful accounts.

A negative balance in the allowance for doubtful accounts means that more accounts than anticipated have been written off. A contra asset account with a typical credit balance is the allowance for doubtful accounts.

Under the aging method, the adjusting entry for bad debt expense is calculated using the following formula:

Estimate of uncollectible accounts - (+) Current credit (debit) balance in the allowance for doubtful accounts = Bad debt expense

Hence, The adjusting entry that the company should pass at the end of the current year to record the bad debts expense is given above.

Learn more about the allowance for doubtful accounts:

brainly.com/question/17008094

#SPJ4

"Your question is incomplete, probably the complete question/missing part is:"

Bad Debts Expense 16,500

Allowance for Doubtful Accounts  16,500

Bad Debts Expense 16,100

Allowance for Doubtful Accounts  16,100

Bad Debts Expense 16,900

Allowance for Doubtful Accounts  16,900

Accounts Receivable 16,500

Bad Debts Expense 400

Sales  16,900

Accounts Receivable 16,900

Allowance for Doubtful Accounts  16,900

8 0
2 years ago
Avocado Company has an operating income of $108,000 on revenues of $1,054,000. Average invested assets are $505,000 and Avocado
TEA [102]

Answer:

$67,960

Explanation:

Residual income = Operating income - (Average invested assets * Cost of capital)

Residual income = $108,000 - ($500,500 * 8%)

Residual income = $108,000 - $40,040

Residual income = $67,960

Thus, the residual income is $67,960

5 0
3 years ago
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