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shtirl [24]
3 years ago
11

Show that, for any integer n > 2, (n + 1)" - 1 is divisible by n2. (Hint: Use the Binomial Theorem.)

Mathematics
1 answer:
Eduardwww [97]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

It's true

Step-by-step explanation:

Operating the square we have:

(n+1)^{2} -1= (n^{2} +2n+1)-1\\ n^{2} +2n+1-1= n^{2} +2n

Here we can factorize n:

n^{2} +2n=n*(n+2)

The last line means our number ((n+1)^{2} -1) is divisible by n.

The clause of n>2 is true, but even its true for n\geq 0 because when n=1 the theorem means that the expression is divisible by 1, but this it's true for every integer, and for n=0 the expression will be 0 and 0 it´s divisible by 0 (Following the definition a|b if a=nb, with a, b and n integers).

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