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shtirl [24]
3 years ago
11

Show that, for any integer n > 2, (n + 1)" - 1 is divisible by n2. (Hint: Use the Binomial Theorem.)

Mathematics
1 answer:
Eduardwww [97]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

It's true

Step-by-step explanation:

Operating the square we have:

(n+1)^{2} -1= (n^{2} +2n+1)-1\\ n^{2} +2n+1-1= n^{2} +2n

Here we can factorize n:

n^{2} +2n=n*(n+2)

The last line means our number ((n+1)^{2} -1) is divisible by n.

The clause of n>2 is true, but even its true for n\geq 0 because when n=1 the theorem means that the expression is divisible by 1, but this it's true for every integer, and for n=0 the expression will be 0 and 0 it´s divisible by 0 (Following the definition a|b if a=nb, with a, b and n integers).

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Helene invested a total of $1,000 in two simple-interest bank accounts. One account paid 8% annual interest; the other paid 9% a
Lelu [443]

Answer: -600 and 1600 were invested into the two accounts.

Step-by-step explanation:

x = amount invested in the first account.

y = amount invested in the second account.

You start off with this equation

x + y = 1000

0.08x + 0.09y=86

Subtract both sides by y.

x=1000-y

Subsitude 1000 - x for x for the second equation.

0.08(1000-y)+0.09y=$86

Use the distributive property to solve for y.

80-0.08y+0.09y=86

80-0.01y=86

6=-0.01y

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Subsitude -600 for y in the first equation and solve for x.

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3 years ago
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Zinaida [17]

Answer:

<h2><u><em>80</em></u></h2>

Step-by-step explanation:

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400 : 100 * 20 =

4 * 20 =                                    

<h2><u><em>80</em></u></h2>

                                       

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