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Firlakuza [10]
3 years ago
5

In the figure below, if BE is the perpendicular bisector of AD, what is the value of x?

Mathematics
1 answer:
dedylja [7]3 years ago
4 0

Both sides would be the same, so set them to equal ans solve for x.


3x+4 = 2x +7

Subtract 4 from each side:

3x = 2x +3

Subtract 2x from each side:

x = 3

The answer is X =  3.

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Answer:

21.87

Step-by-step explanation:

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3 years ago
2 of 6
Elodia [21]

Answer:

89:120

Step-by-step explanation:

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89:120

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it cant be simplified further

8 0
3 years ago
A couple intends to have two children, and suppose that approximately 52% of births are male and 48% are female.
Pachacha [2.7K]

a) Probability of both being males is 27%

b) Probability of both being females is 23%

c) Probability of having exactly one male and one female is 50%

Step-by-step explanation:

a)

The probability that the birth is a male can be written as

p(m) = 0.52 (which corresponds to 52%)

While the probability that the birth is a female can be written as

p(f) = 0.48 (which corresponds to 48%)

Here we want to calculate the probability that over  2 births, both are male. Since the two births are two independent events (the probability of the 2nd to be a male  does not depend on the fact that the 1st one is a male), then the probability of both being males is given by the product of the individual probabilities:

p(mm)=p(m)\cdot p(m)

And substituting, we find

p(mm)=0.52\cdot 0.52 = 0.27

So, 27%.

b)

In this case, we want to find the probability that both children are female, so the probability

p(ff)

As in the previous case, the probability of the 2nd child to be a female is independent from whether the 1st one is a male or a female: therefore, we can apply the rule for independent events, and this means that the probability that both children are females is the product of the individual probability of a child being a female:

p(ff)=p(f)\cdot p(f)

And substituting

p(f)=0.48

We find:

p(ff)=0.48\cdot 0.48=0.23

Which means 23%.

c)

In this case, we want to find the probability they have exactly one male and exactly one female child. This is given by the sum of two probabilities:

- The probability that 1st child is a male and 2nd child is a female, namely p(mf)

- The probability that 1st child is a female and 2nd child is a male, namely p(fm)

So, this probability is

p(mf Ufm)=p(mf)+p(fm)

We have:

p(mf)=p(m)\cdot p(f)=0.52\cdot 0.48=0.25

p(fm)=p(f)\cdot p(m)=0.48\cdot 0.52=0.25

Therefore, this probability is

p(mfUfm)=0.25+0.25=0.50

So, 50%.

Learn more about probabilities:

brainly.com/question/5751004

brainly.com/question/6649771

brainly.com/question/8799684

brainly.com/question/7888686

#LearnwithBrainly

5 0
3 years ago
What is 12 1/2% as a fraction in simplest form
LUCKY_DIMON [66]

Answer:

25/2 I believe

Step-by-step explanation:

4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Give an example of an event in which all of the outcomes are not equally likely. Explain.
Kryger [21]
In order to do that we would need to see the list of potential answers. 
8 0
3 years ago
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