Quadrilateral RSTQ is a parallelogram.

A company pays $10 per hour for up to 8 hours of work. What is the equation for total pay (y) for hours worked (x), for 0-8 hour

Margaret [11]

Answer:

iwill edit

Step-by-step explanation:

6 0

3 years ago

Cual es la ecuacion lineal de estos infinita solucion o no solucion<br>

coldgirl [10]

Cuando has simplificado la ecuación lo mas posible y las expresiones de los dos lados quedan iguales, hay soluciones infinitas. Pero, dado que lo has simplificado y son diferentes, no hay solución.

1.) 7x = 12 + 7x - 12

=> 7x = 7x => infinita solución

2.) x - 11 = 11 + x

=> x = 22 + x => no solución

3.) 2(4x - 6) = 8(x + 2)

=> 8x - 12 = 8x + 16 => 8x = 8x + 28 => no solución

4.) 2x - 9 = 2x - 9

=> infinita solución

5.) 8 + 4x = 4x + 10

=> 4x = 4x - 2 => no solución

6 0

3 years ago

Help me please ....................................

atroni [7]

Answer:

I can't help u with this cause I do not know this kind of math I only learn about Fractions and other math except for algebra.

Step-by-step explanation:

I wish u the best of luck on trying to figure out this answer.

7 0

2 years ago

Rockwell hardness of pins of a certain type is known to have a mean value of 50 and a standard deviation of 1.2.a. If the distri

zalisa [80]

Answer:

a

$P(\= X \ge 51 ) =0.0062$

b

$P(\= X \ge 51 ) = 0$

Step-by-step explanation:

From the question we are told that

The mean value is $\mu = 50$

The standard deviation is $\sigma = 1.2$

Considering question a

The sample size is n = 9

Generally the standard error of the mean is mathematically represented as

$\sigma_x = \frac{\sigma }{\sqrt{n} }$

=> $\sigma_x = \frac{ 1.2 }{\sqrt{9} }$

=> $\sigma_x = 0.4$

Generally the probability that the sample mean hardness for a random sample of 9 pins is at least 51 is mathematically represented as

$P(\= X \ge 51 ) = P( \frac{\= X - \mu }{\sigma_{x}} \ge \frac{51 - 50 }{0.4 } )$

$\frac{\= X -\mu}{\sigma } = Z (The \ standardized \ value\ of \ \= X )$

$P(\= X \ge 51 ) = P( Z \ge 2.5 )$

=> $P(\= X \ge 51 ) =1- P( Z < 2.5 )$

From the z table the area under the normal curve to the left corresponding to 2.5 is

$P( Z < 2.5 ) = 0.99379$

=> $P(\= X \ge 51 ) =1-0.99379$

=> $P(\= X \ge 51 ) =0.0062$

Considering question b

The sample size is n = 40

Generally the standard error of the mean is mathematically represented as

$\sigma_x = \frac{\sigma }{\sqrt{n} }$

=> $\sigma_x = \frac{ 1.2 }{\sqrt{40} }$

=> $\sigma_x = 0.1897$

Generally the (approximate) probability that the sample mean hardness for a random sample of 40 pins is at least 51 is mathematically represented as

$P(\= X \ge 51 ) = P( \frac{\= X - \mu }{\sigma_x} \ge \frac{51 - 50 }{0.1897 } )$

=> $P(\= X \ge 51 ) = P(Z \ge 5.2715 )$

=> $P(\= X \ge 51 ) = 1- P(Z < 5.2715 )$

From the z table the area under the normal curve to the left corresponding to 5.2715 and

=> $P(Z < 5.2715 ) = 1$

So

$P(\= X \ge 51 ) = 1- 1$

=> $P(\= X \ge 51 ) = 0$

5 0

3 years ago

Find each quotient. Write in simplest form. keep answer as fraction - not decimal

barxatty [35]

mn^2 / 4 divided by m^2n / 8

is simplified to

2n / m

:)))

8 0

3 years ago