Answer:
read below
Step-by-step explanation:
Alright, archtan /
tan
−
1
(
x
)
is the inverse of tangent. Tan is
sin
cos
. Like the inverse of sin, the inverse of tan is also restricted to quadrants 1 and 4.
Knowing this we are solving for the inverse of tan -1. We are basically being asked the question what angle/radian does tan(-1) equal. Using the unit circle we can see that tan(1)= pi/4.
Since the "Odds and Evens Identity" states that tan(-x) = -tan(x). Tan(-1)= -pi/4.
Knowing that tan is negative in quadrants 2 and 4. the answer is in either of those two quadrants. BUT!!! since inverse of tan is restricted to quadrants 1 and 4 we are left with the only answer -pi/4.
the answer is m=-3n-5/2 or n=2m+5/6
To find the perfect square needed, you take the "middle" value and half it, then square it. so in this case, take -6, half it into 3, and square it to get 9. you'll be adding 9 to both sides
Answer: x = 1
3x + 4 = 7
subtract 4 from both sides
3x = 3
x = 3/3 = 1
Answer:
58 dollars (0.20) + 58 dollars
Step-by-step explanation:
58 dollars (0.20) + 58 dollars