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Elden [556K]
3 years ago
14

Phipps Company borrowed $25,000 cash on October 1, 2016, and signed a nine-month, 8% interest-bearing note payable with interest

payable at maturity. Assuming that adjusting entries have not been made during the year, the amount of accrued interest payable to be reported on the December 31, 2016 balance sheet is which of the following? a) $250 b) $300 c) $500 d) $750
Business
1 answer:
anzhelika [568]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

The correct option is C,$500

Explanation:

The amount of interest accrual is the interest on the sum borrowed from October 1 2016 to 31 December 2016,that is 3 months of interest,which is computed below:

Accrued interest =principal*stated interest rate*number of accrued months/12

principal is $25,000

stated interest is 8%

number of accrued months is 3

accrued interest =$25,000*8%*3/12=$500

The accrued interest is to be debited interest expense  because it is an increase in expense  and credited to interest payable as a liability

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Montano1993 [528]

Answer:

it's most likely B or D. but you need to double check

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2 years ago
What are primary and secondary markets?
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Answer:

Explanation:

The primary market is the market in which the new securities like bonds, stocks, etc are offered to the general public for the first time or we can say Initial public offer.

The initial public offer is an example of the primary market .

On the other hand, the secondary market is that market in which the securities are purchased or sold through the investors after offering to the general public.  

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3 years ago
You decide to invest in a period annuity that offers 4.5% APR compounded monthly for 20 years. How much money will you need to i
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3 years ago
West Corp. issued 25-year bonds two years ago at a coupon rate of 5.3 percent. The bonds make semiannual payments. If these bond
Nataliya [291]

Answer:

YTM is 4.94%

Explanation:

The  yield  to maturity is the return on the bond throughout the bond's tenure and can be computed using rate function in excel as shown below.

=rate(nper,pmt,-pv,fv)

nper is the number of coupons the bond has left to pay(23 years*2)

pmt is the semiannual coupon of the bond=$1000*5.3%*6/12=26.5

pv is the curren price=$1000*105%=$1050

fv is the face value of the bond

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2.47% is the semiannual yield

annual yield=2.47% *2=4.94%

7 0
3 years ago
According to the​ Break-Even EBIT​ analysis, shareholders are​ ____ off with debt when EBIT is​ _____ the​ Break-Even EBIT level
Kobotan [32]

Answer:

Answer B.

Explanation:

EBIT break even point is a situation when company does not make a profit or has loss. It is a point where earnings per share are equal to zero. It is the level of ebit equal to fixed costs for the company, like interest on the debt. If this break even point increases, this leads to the increase of financial risk. However, increase of ebit above break even point leads to net income calculated as EBIT*(1-interest expense)*(1-tax rate)-preferred dividends being higher.

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3 years ago
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