Answer:
Explanation:
Present value is calculated as the discounted sum of either a fixed amount or a series of payments in the future, at a given interest rates.
For example, at an interest of 5%, $100 in 10 years will be valued at $100 / 1.05^10 = $61.39 today
Answer and Explanation:
Unemployment rate = (Unemployed/Labor force)*100
Labor Force Participation Rate = (Labor force/Adult population)*100
Labor force = number of unemployed + number of employed
Adult population = employed + unemployed + not in the labor force
When homemakers are included in the labor force as employed then the unemployment rate would go down, labor force would increase and so the labor force participation rate would increase.
The unemployment rate would decrease and the labor force participation rate would increase.
Answer:
<u>Using related diversification to achieve value by integrating vertically in order to acquire market power.</u>
Explanation:
First, let's understand what are the stages of a supply chain, they are:
- commodities
- manufacturing
- distribution
- retail
In this regard, we can see that Shaw Industries controls more than one stage of its supply, commodities and manufacturing chain, which characterizes vertical integration.
Therefore, the most appropriate alternative to the question is that the company gains a greater market gain with this strategy because it increases the management and quality control, by ensuring that the inputs and processes are in accordance with its standards, which guarantees a product of higher quality and consequently better positioned on the market.
Answer:
A. 25%
B. 50%
C. 48000 after tax cash flow
Explanation:
a. lets assume marginal tax rate is X%
After tax cash flow of 80000 should equal to 60000$
$80000 - [$80000*X%] = 60000$
80000*X% = 80000-60000
80000*X% =20000
X = 20000/80000
= 25%
b.
$80000 - [$80000*50%*x%] = 60000$
40000*x%=20000
x%=50%
c.
$80000- [$80000*x] = 60000 - [60000*50%*x]
80000-60000 = [80000*x] - [30000*x]
20000 = 50000x
x=40%
check
80000-40% =48000 after tax cash flow
60000*50%
=60000- [60000*50%*40%]
=48000 after tax cash flow
Answer:
loss of $ 1,400,000.00
Explanation:
Amount of share : two million:
offer price per share: $55
selling price per share: $53.80
Loss per share: $1.20
Total loss= $1.2X2,000,000= ($2,400.000.00)
Earning from spread: 0.5x2,000,000.00 =$1,000.000.00
Net earning: (2,400,000.00)+$1,000,000.00=($ 1,400,000.00)
loss of $ 1,400,000.00
