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larisa86 [58]
3 years ago
13

Which question is the same as -4 - (-2)

Mathematics
1 answer:
denis23 [38]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

-4 + 2 = -2

Step-by-step explanation:

-4 -(-2) uses the process of cancellation. -(-2) is equal to positive 2, since the negatives cancel out. -4 + 2 is left, which equals -2.

Subtracting a negative from a negative is like subtracting a positive from a positive. It is even like 1-1. Once you subtract one from another, nothing is left.

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What us problems 6 and 7?<br>​
Sunny_sXe [5.5K]

Answer:

y=(x+7)2(2x+1)(x−4)

y=2x4+21x3−4x2−399x−196

Step-by-step explanation:

8 0
3 years ago
PLEASE HELP!!!<br><br> it helps alot if you get this correct
Solnce55 [7]

Answer:

A

Step-by-step explanation:

A is the answer

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
M. Score: 0 of 1 pt
beks73 [17]

Answer:

  3×5×53

Step-by-step explanation:

You can use divisibility rules to find the small prime factors.

The number ends in 5, so is divisible by 5.

  795/5 = 159

The sum of digits is 1+5+9 = 15; 1+5 = 6, a number divisible by 3, so 3 is a factor.

  159/3 = 53 . . . . . a prime number,* so we're done.

795 = 3×5×53

_____

* If this were not prime, it would be divisible by a prime less than its square root. √53 ≈ 7.3. We know it is not divisible by 2, 3, or 5. We also know the closest multiples of 7 are 49 and 56, so it is not divisible by 7. Hence 53 is prime.

5 0
3 years ago
HELP PLEASE TELL ME WHICH ONE WITH AN EXPLAINATION
Alex787 [66]

Answer:

Im not sure, but i think it's the bottom because there not working with negatives

Step-by-step explanation:

Don't put that as the answer tho, im not too sure.

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
A couple intends to have two children, and suppose that approximately 52% of births are male and 48% are female.
Pachacha [2.7K]

a) Probability of both being males is 27%

b) Probability of both being females is 23%

c) Probability of having exactly one male and one female is 50%

Step-by-step explanation:

a)

The probability that the birth is a male can be written as

p(m) = 0.52 (which corresponds to 52%)

While the probability that the birth is a female can be written as

p(f) = 0.48 (which corresponds to 48%)

Here we want to calculate the probability that over  2 births, both are male. Since the two births are two independent events (the probability of the 2nd to be a male  does not depend on the fact that the 1st one is a male), then the probability of both being males is given by the product of the individual probabilities:

p(mm)=p(m)\cdot p(m)

And substituting, we find

p(mm)=0.52\cdot 0.52 = 0.27

So, 27%.

b)

In this case, we want to find the probability that both children are female, so the probability

p(ff)

As in the previous case, the probability of the 2nd child to be a female is independent from whether the 1st one is a male or a female: therefore, we can apply the rule for independent events, and this means that the probability that both children are females is the product of the individual probability of a child being a female:

p(ff)=p(f)\cdot p(f)

And substituting

p(f)=0.48

We find:

p(ff)=0.48\cdot 0.48=0.23

Which means 23%.

c)

In this case, we want to find the probability they have exactly one male and exactly one female child. This is given by the sum of two probabilities:

- The probability that 1st child is a male and 2nd child is a female, namely p(mf)

- The probability that 1st child is a female and 2nd child is a male, namely p(fm)

So, this probability is

p(mf Ufm)=p(mf)+p(fm)

We have:

p(mf)=p(m)\cdot p(f)=0.52\cdot 0.48=0.25

p(fm)=p(f)\cdot p(m)=0.48\cdot 0.52=0.25

Therefore, this probability is

p(mfUfm)=0.25+0.25=0.50

So, 50%.

Learn more about probabilities:

brainly.com/question/5751004

brainly.com/question/6649771

brainly.com/question/8799684

brainly.com/question/7888686

#LearnwithBrainly

5 0
3 years ago
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