Answer:
1. -2.2% 2. 40.6%
Explanation:
95%probability range =0.192±(2*.0107)=-2.2% to 40.6%
With the use of tables, we can work out above figures
95% given in question
Standard deviation given 10.7%
Average return=19.2%
Answer:
December 31, year 9
Explanation:
Here, we want to state that date that is possible for Milo to acquire qualified replacement property.
In order to avoid being taxed on a gain resulting from an involuntary conversion, the property subject to the conversion must be replaced within a specified time, measured from the end of the calendar year in which the proceeds are received.
Generally, the period is 2 years, but it is 3 years when the involuntary conversion results from government condemnation or eminent domain and is extended to 4 years when the loss is in connection with a declared federal disaster area.
We are told from the question that Milo received the recovery on January 2, Year 5, the property would have to be replaced within 4 years from the end of Year 5 or by December 31, Year 9
Answer: C. II and III
Explanation:
There are 5,000,000 shares of PDQ Corporation as of when they declared the rights offering. This means that every share will get a right to buy stock.
However, as only 1,000,000 shares are being offered per the 5,000,000 shares outstanding it means that one stock may be purchased for every 5 rights.
A customer who owns 500 shares will therefore get 500 rights.
However with one stock up for sale per 5 rights they will receive the opportunity to buy;
= 500/5
= 100 shares
Answer: c. capital loss.
Explanation:
A capital loss refers to a scenario where the price of a security falls below the price at which it was purchased. This is what happened to the Alpha Industries stock above as the price dropped from $39 to $37 which led to a capital loss of $2.
The dividends paid seem to outweigh the capital loss but we cannot be certain of this unless we know the tax rate being applied to the dividends and because these are usually high, the after tax dividends might have been lower the capital loss of $2.
Answer:
Fee based fund is the correct answer to the given question
Explanation:
In the fee based funds exercise the money is charged directly to customers.The Fee-Based Funds is imposing the charge of sales to the customer .The Fee-based funds consultants could charge an extra payment of fixed price according to the company policy .
- When the company sells the mutual fund in a fee-based consideration individuals will buy the bond fund Series of the F units.
- All the other options are not related to imposing the sales charge that's why they are incorrect option .
