Answer:
The project manager can convince the project sponsors with the following reasons which are,
(1) Telling the sponsors the additional benefits that the team will have once a member enters the team.
(2)Informing the sponsors about the work not completed due to lesser number of workers.
(3)Informing the sponsors the additional benefits that the team will have once a member enters the team.
For on boarding a new worker the project manager does the following which includes:
(1)it is very necessary to share the agendas and charters of the previous meetings of the project to help individuals to familiarize with the project scope and goals.
(2)Having a one one meeting a with the individual and discussing with him/her about the project and solve his/her issues.
(3) Doing a formal introduction of the new member to both the project team and stakeholders of the project.
Explanation:
Solution:
In the half way of the project, the project manager can convince the project sponsors in the following ways shown below:
- Informing the sponsors about the work not completed due to lesser number of workers
- Informing the sponsors about the delays taking place due to shortage of members in the team
- Telling the sponsors the additional benefits that the team will have once a member enters the team
- Convincing the sponsors by discussing and talking with him/her the various drawbacks of not having the required numbers of members in the team.
For getting a new member on board for the project, it is very important to share the agendas and charters and minutes of the previous meetings of the project to enable individuals to familiarize with the project scope and goals.
Secondly, a one one meeting and discussion with the individual must be organized to brief him/her about the project and solve his/her issues.
Finally the new member must be introduced to both the project team and stakeholders of the project.
Answer:
The effect of this error on 2003 ending working capital is that it overstated the ending 2003 working capital.
The error does not have effect on the 2004 ending retained earnings balance.
Explanation:
Let the amount of the commission expense be xxxx.
At the end of 2003, the journal entries should have been as follows:
Debit Commission expense for xxxx
Credie Commission payable for xxxx
Also, we have:
Working capital = Current assets – Current liabilities ………… (1)
From equation (1), current liabilities are understated because commission payable which was not recorded is an item under current liabilities. Since the current liabilities are understated, that indicates that the working capital in equation is overstated. Therefore, the effect of this error on 2003 ending working capital is that it overstated the ending 2003 working capital.
When the 2003 commission expense in the entries above was paid in 2004, it would have been recognized as an expense. This made the error to counterbalance. This implies that the 2004 ending retained earnings balance is still correct despite that there are errors in the earnings of the two years. Therefore, the error does not have effect on the 2004 ending retained earnings balance.
Answer:
The price of the bond is closest $101.36
Explanation:
It is noteworthy that a rational investor pays for a bond today the cash flows derivable from the bonds in future discounted to today's terms.
The future cash flows comprise of the yearly coupon interest of $5.5(5.5% *$100) for 3 years as well as the repayment of the principal $100 at the end of year 3.
To bring the cash inflows today's term, we multiply them them by the discounting factor 1/(1+r)^N , where is the yield to maturity of 5% and N is the relevant the cash flow is received.
The discounting is done in attached spreadsheet leading $ 101.36 present value today.
Answer:
The multiple choices are:
a. $1132
b. $1044
c. $ 962
d. $1153
e. $ 988
The correct option is C,$962
Explanation:
The price a rational and prudent investor like me would be willing to pay for the bond today is the present worth of future cash inflows receivable from the bond issuer,which comprises of annual coupon interest and the face value at maturity.
=-pv(rate,nper,pmt,fv)
rate is required rate of return expected by investor of 10%
nper is 5 years since the investor intends to hold the bond for 5 years
pmt is the annual coupon interest=$1000*9%=$90
fv is the face value of $1000
=-pv(10%,5,90,1000)=$962.09
The current price is $962
