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lord [1]
3 years ago
7

Round 144 to the nearest 100.

Mathematics
2 answers:
Wewaii [24]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

100

Step-by-step explanation:

144 is below 150 so it would not be converted to 200.

damaskus [11]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

100

Step-by-step explanation:

Because if the 2nd number is less than 5 its always lowered down

pls give me brainliest

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Do you think you can write a disjunction that has no
kaheart [24]

Answer:

no

Step-by-step explanation:

then you have nothing like no "pazas"!

6 0
3 years ago
4. Z BAD is bisected by AC. What is the value of x? (3pts)
Snowcat [4.5K]
(-4x + 42) = (64 - 6x)
-4x + 42 = 64 - 6x
+6x on both sides
2x + 42 = 64
-42 on both sides
2x = 22
/2 on both sides
x = 11

Answer:
x = 11
4 0
3 years ago
Can someone answer this?
Harman [31]

Answer:

Length of mammoth's tusk in  poster = 15.33

Step-by-step explanation:

Actual height of mammoth = 10 feet 5 inches = 126 inches

Height on the poster of mammoth = 14 inches

Actual length of mammoth's tusk = 11.5 feet = 138 inches

Length of mammoth's tusk in  poster = x

126 : 14  :: 138  : x

Product of mean = product of extremes

x * 126 = 14 * 138

x = \frac{14*138}{126}

x = 15.33

6 0
2 years ago
a 4-in hole has been bored through a 6-in cube. what is the approximate volume of the remaining solid? use 3.14 for pi
mixas84 [53]

Answer:

The approximate volume of the remaining solid is 140.64\ in^{3}

Step-by-step explanation:

we know that

The approximate volume is equal to the volume of the cube minus the volume of the cylinder

so

V=b^{3}-\pi r^{2}h

we have

b=6\ in

r=4/2=2\ in -----> the radius is half the diameter

h=6\ in

substitute the values

V=6^{3}-(3.14)(2^{2})(6)=140.64\ in^{3}

3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
As you probably know, there is still a difference in wages for men vs. women in this country. Besides straight-up
vesna_86 [32]

9514 1404 393

Answer:

  year 2066

Step-by-step explanation:

In order to do this, we need to make some assumptions. We'll assume that the 2010 wages are also in 2009 dollars. (If not, there's an inflation factor that needs to be accounted for.) We also need to assume the form of the change in wages over time. The simplest assumption there is that wages change linearly.

Then we can write equations for men's and women's wages as follows:

Using the 2-point form of the equation for a line, we have ...

  y = (y2 -y1)/(x2 -x1)(x -x1) +y1

<u>Men's wages</u>

  y = (42800 -38907)/(2010-1960)(x -1960) +38907

  y = 77.86(x -1960) +38907

  y = 77.86x -113,698.6 . . . . . where x is the year

<u>Women's wages</u>

  y = (34700 -23606)/(2010 -1960)(x -1960) +23606

  y = 221.88x -411,278

These values are equal when ...

  77.86x -113,698.6 = 221.88x -411,278

  297,580.2 = 144.02x . . . . . . . add 411278 -77.86x

  2066.2 = x . . . . . . . divide by the coefficient of x

Based on this data we predict women's wages might catch up to men's in the year 2066, about 56 years from 2010.

_____

<em>Alternate solution</em>

In the 50 years from 1960 to 2010, the fraction of men's wages that women receive has increased from 23606/38907 ≈ 0.606729 to 34700/42800 ≈ 0.810748. That is a change of about 0.204 of men's wages in 50 years. The remaining fraction of 1-0.810748 = 0.189 might be expected to be wiped out in another (0.189/0.204)(50 years) = 46.4 years. That would be the year 2056.

The different results come from different assumptions. For the second solution, we assumed that the fraction improved linearly. Under the first assumption, that wages improved linearly, the fractional improvement is non-linear, and decreases over time.

_____

<em>Additional comment</em>

The usual assumption regarding things financial is that they change exponentially over time. If we use an exponential model, instead of a linear one, wage parity is reached in about 2046.

3 0
3 years ago
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