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Nutka1998 [239]
3 years ago
15

1. Select why manufacturers use a predetermined overhead rate to apply manufacturing overhead to their jobs. (You may select mor

e than one answer. Single click the box with the question mark to produce a check mark for a correct answer and double click the box with the question mark to empty the box for a wrong answer.) Manufacturers use predetermined overhead rates to allocate to production jobs the production costs that are not directly traceable to specific jobs. unanswered Manufacturers use predetermined overhead rates to allocate to production jobs the production costs that are directly traceable to specific jobs. unanswered Management will have timely, accurate job-cost information. unanswered Predetermined overhead rates are easy to apply and avoid fluctuations in job costs caused by changes in production volume or overhead costs throughout the year. unanswered
Business
1 answer:
Lady bird [3.3K]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

The correct answer is: Manufacturers use predetermined overhead rates to allocate to production jobs the production costs that are not directly traceable to specific jobs.

Explanation:

If we are able to trace a cost directly to a product we will not include it in manufacturing overhead. Manufacturing overhead was created to allocate costs that are not directly traceable to a product. It helps manufacturers to allocate costs with certain precision.

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When a grant-application package lists eligible applicants, it is just a suggestion. This is America: all organizations are elig
Rufina [12.5K]

Answer:

false

Explanation:

The United States government do make some monies available to individuals or organisation in the form of grants, for the achievement of set purposes or goals. Not everyone or organisation can be eligible for all the available grants at any time. People are expected to look through various application processes to know if they are legally eligible to apply for any grant in order to avoid wasting their time and money during application.

6 0
3 years ago
Money demand is given by md/p = 1000 .2y - 1000i. given that p = 200, y = 2000, and i = .10, real money demand is equal to?
Marrrta [24]

The real money demand is equal to $2,60,000

Money demand/ P = 1000+0.2Y -1000i

Money demand/200= 1000+0.2(2000)-1000(0.1)= 1000+400-100

=1300

Money demand  /200 = 1300

Money demand  = $1300*200

= $2,60,000

Money demand is the demand for real cash balances as people hold onto money to purchase goods and services. The higher the price level, the more money you need to buy a certain amount of goods.

Learn more about Money demand here:brainly.com/question/24109874

#SPJ4

4 0
2 years ago
Oscar's Flower Shop maximizes profits by hiring four workers in a perfectly competitive labor market. The workers and their valu
Irina-Kira [14]

Answer:

In equilibrium, each worker is paid his or her value of the marginal product of labor.

Explanation:

Here are the missing option of the question:

  • In equilibrium, each worker is paid his or her value of the marginal product of labor.
  • Each worker is paid a wage equal to the highest value of the marginal product of labor(i.e., $40)
  • Each worker is paid $15.
  • We need to know the product price before we can figure out the wage rate.

As per marginal theory of productivity of income distribution, Income of each factor production is equal to its marginal productivity.

Marginal productivity is one additional unit of production by one unit additional unit of factor, which bring changes in total production. Firm hire labor till marginal revenue product of labor is more than wage rate of labor. The point at which Marginal revenue product of labor is equal to wage rate labor is the labor market equilibrium.

6 0
3 years ago
When there is allocative efficiency in a market, the buyers' maximum willingness to pay for the last unit traded is equal to the
VashaNatasha [74]

<em>That answer is A. True</em>

5 0
4 years ago
Read 2 more answers
ou expect General Motors (GM) to have a beta of 1.6 over the next year and the beta of Exxon Mobil (XOM) to be 0.7 over the next
Allisa [31]

Answer: General Motors (GM)

Explanation:

The beta is a measure of the Systematic risk that a security holds. The higher the beta, the more Systematic risk the security has. Market Beta is 1 so anything above 1 is considered to have more Systematic risk than the Market.

General Motors here has a higher beta than Exxon Mobil so has more Systematic risk than Exxon.

3 0
3 years ago
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