How to make 5:___=40:32 an equivalent ratio
1 answer:
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Answer:
The sample 2 has a lowest value of SE corresponding to the least sample variability.
Step-by-step explanation:
As the value of the sample means and standard deviations are not given, as similar question is found online from which the values of data is follows
The data is as attached with the solution. From this data
Sample 1 has a mean of 34 and a SE of 5
Sample 2 has a mean of 30 and a SE of 2
Sample 3 has a mean of 26 and a SE of 3
Sample 4 has a mean of 38 and a SE of 5
As per the measure of the sample variability is linked with the value of SE or standard error. Which is lowest in the case of sample 2 .
So the sample 2 has a lowest value of SE corresponding to the least sample variability.
