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3 years ago

A shift in the demand curve can be caused by a change in one of the determinants of demand.

Business

1 answer:

Dominik [7]3 years ago

3 0

Answer:

A- A change in the technology used by firms.

Explanation:

A change in technology can affect the demand of products and services. It can lead to the increased demand for a certain product, reducing the demand for an older product.

With the use of technology to upgrade products and services, demand curves will continually shift, according to preferences of customers.

Technology could be used by firms to produce upgrades and newer variations of products at more favorable prices for customers than existing products. This leads to competition and the demand for the newer device goes up since people see the new product as 'getting more for less'. A good example is computers and tablets. Tablets which could match up with the work of computers were produced at lower prices. This shifted the demand towards tablets, making computers more obsolete.

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The benefits of belonging to professional organizations include the development of professional contacts and the opportunity to

ziro4ka [17]

Answer:

True

Explanation:

Belonging to a professional organizations provides opportunity to share knowledge and experience and learn from others. It also avails one opportunity to share contacts with other professionals who may be of help in securing business opportunities and resolving business issues .

7 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

. Archie can claim total deductible medical expenses that exceed 7.5% of his adjusted gross income. a. True b. False

Thepotemich [5.8K]

The correct answer is; False, as of 2020.

Further Explanation:

In the previous tax years, 2017-2018, this statement would of been correct. Archie could of claimed his total deductible medical expenses that exceeded 7.5% of his AGI. However, the laws changed for 2019 and this is no longer the correct way to claim medical expenses.

For the 2019 taxes, a person can only deduct any expenses that amount to over 10% of the total AGI per person. The deduction can be figured by taking your AGI and multiplying this total by 10%. The deductions will also have to be itemized before claiming.

Learn more about medical deductibles at brainly.com/question/1845375

#LearnwithBrainly

3 0

3 years ago

Kayleigh is looking over a number of material requisition slips from her employees. She has to sign off on each request after re

dedylja [7]

Answer:

B. No, approval by an individual other than the requestor establishes greater accountability over inventory.

Explanation:

This step is required as it will ensure control over inventory usage.

3 0

3 years ago

Gabrielle daily borrows $1,000 at a 6 percent add-on rate for one year.what is the finance charge?answers

denpristay [2]

P - principle of the loan
FC - finance change or total interest
N - number of months the loan is force

FC = ($1,000 x .06 x 1)
FC = $60

Finance charge is $60.

5 0

3 years ago

Universal Laser, Inc., just paid a dividend of $3.10 on its stock. The growth rate in dividends is expected to be a constant 6 p

Vadim26 [7]

Answer:

Ans. The current price of the stock is $56.82

Explanation:

Hi, well, the problem here is that we have different discount rates, in other words the required rate of return for the stock changes several times, therefore we are going to break this problem in 3 parts, or bring to present value all the cash flows in 3 steps. Let´s start with the value of the dividends.

We have to use the following formula.

$Dn=D_{(n-1)} *(1+g)$

Where, D(n-1) is last dividend and Dn is the dividend that we are looking for, for example, D1 = 3.10*(1+0.06)=3.29, D2=3.29*(1+0.06)=3.48, and so forth. The amount to pay on dividends per share is,

D1=3.29; D2=3.48; D3=3.69; D4=3.91; D5=4.15; D6=4.40; D(7)=4.66

Since the first 3 years are to be discounted at a 15%, this is how the formula should look like.

$PV(1)=\frac{D1}{(1+r(1))^{1} } +\frac{D2}{(1+r(1))^{2} } +\frac{D3}{(1+r(1))^{3} }$

$PV(1)=\frac{3.29}{(1+0.15)^{1} } +\frac{3.48}{(1+0.15)^{2} } +\frac{3.69}{(1+0.15)^{3} }=7.92$

Now, for the second part, we have to bring all cash flows to year 3 at r(2)=13% and then bring it to present value at r(1)=15%. This is because we have 2 different discount rates, this is as follows.

$PV(2)=(\frac{D4}{(1+r(2))^{1} } +\frac{D5}{(1+r(2))^{2} } +\frac{D6}{(1+r(2))^{3} })*\frac{1}{((1+r(1)^{3} }$

$PV(2)=(\frac{3.91}{(1+0.13)^{1} } +\frac{4.15}{(1+0.13)^{2} } +\frac{4.40}{(1+0.13)^{3} })*\frac{1}{(1+0.15)^{3} } =6.42$

Finally, we need to bring all the future cash flows from year 7 and beyond, notice that we need to use the return rate r(3) to bring everything to year 6, then we have to bring it to year 3 and then to present value, everything as follows.

$PV(3)=(\frac{D7}{(r(3)-g)} )*(\frac{1}{(1+r(2))^{3} } )*(\frac{1}{(1+r(1))^{3} } )$

$PV(3)=(\frac{4.66}{(0.11-0.06)} )*(\frac{1}{(1+0.13)^{3} } )*(\frac{1}{(1+0.15)^{3} } )=42.48$

So, the price of the stock is PV(1) + PV(2) + PV(3), or:

$Price=7.92+6.42+42.48=56.82$

Price= $56.82/share

Best of luck.

3 0

3 years ago