He believed he ruled as an absolute monarchy and the other monarchies were arbitary monarchies.
As I understand it, Laissez-faire ideology maintains that the "free market" is the best way to determine what businesses can and should do. This means that businesses, in competition with one another, should be free to determine their paths free from any government rules or regulations. The belief is that the competition among various businesses will ultimately result in the best outcomes for society in general - Adam Smith's "invisible hand". As part of this philosophy, workers should also be free to compete with each other and choose to work wherever they wish and this process will also result in the best results for the workers as well.
However, isn't there a huge assumption in this philosophy? Doesn't the whole justification of this belief depends on the condition that there is perfect competition and that any company and any worker have the equal ability to compete with one another?
What if there is no perfect competition? What if some companies have advantages - due to any of a whole array of reasons - that place them in a non-competitive position vis a vis their competitors? Without perfect competition then other companies are not necessarily able to compete with other companies that have certain advantages. If such a situation exists, then advantaged companies may have the ability to pursue a course that results in their private benefit, but not necessarily to the benefit of society as a whole. The same would apply to workers in that reduced competition among companies would result in decreased leverage for potential employees.
To recap, if the Laissez-faire ideology maintains the best economic policy for society as a whole, and it depends on there being perfect competition on an ongoing basis with minimal government intervention, doesn't it fall apart if there is less than the perfect competition?
One of the <em>leading organizations </em>of the temperance movement was the <em>Woman's Christian Temperance Union</em> and they preached abstinence from;
- Alcohol, in the eighteenth century
According to the given question, we are asked to state the things which the temperate movement preached and how the <em>Woman's Christian Temperance Union</em> was such an important fact.
As a result of this, we can see that the temperance movement was made popular in the eighteenth century and as a result of this, they preached for the abstinence from alcoholism and advocated for moderation.
Read more about temperance movement here:
brainly.com/question/2724002
Answer:
It was the main cause as all great European powers wanted to spread their imperialistic and colonial power.
Explanation:
After Italy and Germany were unified European political scene was totally different. Old powers felt threatened by the rise of these countries, while on the other side, Germany and Italy, together with Austria-Hungary wanted to strengthen their role.
After the Berlin Conference it was obvious that France and Britain had dominance in the colonies, therefore the so-called Central Powers wanted to rearrange this.
Entente powers didn't wanted to change their stance and it was just a question of time when the world will begin.
