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Firdavs [7]
3 years ago
13

Rudy's, Inc. and Blackstone, Inc. are all-equity firms. Rudy's has 1,500 shares outstanding at a market price of $22 a share. Bl

ackstone has 2,500 shares outstanding at a price of $38 a share. Blackstone is acquiring Rudy's for $36,000 in cash. What is the merger premium per share?
Business
1 answer:
aleksandr82 [10.1K]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

Merger premium per share is equal to $2

Explanation:

Step 1. Given information.

  • 1500 shares outstanding
  • market price of 22
  • Blackstone has 2.500 shares
  • Outstanding price 38
  • Blackstone acquire Rudy's for $36.000

Step 2. Formulas needed to solve the exercise.

Merger premium per share = (Blackstone acquire Rudy's /shares outstanding) - market price

Step 3. Calculation.

Merger premium per share = ($36,000/1,500) - $22 = $2

Step 4. Solution.

Merger premium per share is equal to $2

You might be interested in
Sonny's BBQ Company recently issued $85 par value preferred stock that pays an annual dividend of $9. Analysts estimate that the
Bond [772]

Answer:

Intrinsic value=$73.77

Explanation:

<em>The Dividend Valuation Model(DVM) is a technique used to value the worth of an asset.</em>

<em> According to this model, the value of an asset is the sum of the present values of the future cash flows would that arise from the asset discounted at the required rate of return.</em>

Price = D/Kp

D- Dividend payable

Kp- cost of preferred stock

So will need to work out the cost of equity using CAPM

<em>The capital asset pricing model (CAPM)</em>: relates the price of a share to the market risk or systematic risk. The systematic risk is that which affects all the all the economic agents, e.g inflation, interest rate e.t.c  

This model is considered superior to DVM. Hence, we will use the CAPM

Using the CAPM , the expected return on a asset is given as follows:  

E(r)= Rf +β(Rm-Rf)  

E(r) =? , Rf- 2.4%, Rm- 12.1% β- 1.01

E(r) = 2.4% + 1.23×(12.1- 2.4)%  = 12.20 %

Cost of preferred stock= 12.20 %

Using the dividend valuation model

Intrinsic value = 9/0.1220=73.77

Intrinsic value=$73.77

5 0
3 years ago
Mccrone Corporation has provided the following data for its two most recent years of operation: Selling price per unit $ 59 Manu
Karolina [17]

Answer:

$172,000

Explanation:

The solution of net operating income (loss) under variable costing in Year 1 is provided below:-

To find out the net operating income (loss) first we need to follow some steps which are as follows:-

Step 1

Total unit product cost = Direct material + Direct Labor + Variable manufacturing overhead

= $11 + $6 + $4

= $21

Step 2

Gross contribution margin = Sales - (Beginning inventory + variable cost of goods manufactured + Variable cost of goods available for sale - Ending inventory)

= ($59 × 10,000) - ( 0 + ($21 × 11,000) - ($21 × 1000)

= $590,000 - (0 + $231,000 - $21,000)

= $590,000 - $210,000

= $380,000

and finally

Net Operating income = Gross contribution margin - Variable selling and administrative expenses - Manufacturing - Selling and administrative expenses

= $380,000 - (10,000 × $4) - $88,000 - $80,000

= $380,000 - $40,000 - $88,000 - $80,000

= $172,000

To reach  we simply put the values into formula.

5 0
3 years ago
In 2016, Raleigh sold 1,000 units at $500 each, and earned net income of $40,000. Variable expenses were $300 per unit, and fixe
labwork [276]

Answer:

1,118 units.

Explanation:

The computation of number of units to be sold is shown below:-

For the Year 2016

Number of Units Sold = 1,000 units

Unit selling price = $500 per unit

Total Sales = $500 × 1,000 = $500,000

Variable Costs = $300 × 1,000

= $300,000

Contribution = $500,000 - $300,000

= $200,000

Fixed Costs = $160,000

Net Income = $200,000 - $160,000

= $40,000

For the Year 2017

Unit Selling Price = $500 per unit

Unit Variable Cost = $300 × 1.10

= $330 per unit

Contribution per unit = $500 - $330 = $170 per unit

Fixed Cost = $160,000 - $10,000 = $150,000

Now, to maintain the same income of $ 40,000 the Company have a total contribution

$150,000 + $40,000

= $190,000

Number of units to be sold = Total contribution ÷ Contribution per unit

= $190,000 ÷ $170

= 1,117.64

or

1,118 units.

4 0
3 years ago
You are evaluating two different silicon wafer milling machines. The Techron I costs $245,000, has a three-year life, and has pr
sveticcg [70]

Answer:

Techron I . According to the calculations, Techron I reports a better performance.

Explanation:

Techron I

Cost of Machine = $245,000

Useful Life = 3 years

Annual Depreciation = Cost of Machine / Useful Life

Annual Depreciation = $245,000 / 3

Annual Depreciation = $81,666.67

Salvage Value = $40,000

After-tax Salvage Value = $40,000 * (1 - 0.22)

After-tax Salvage Value = $31,200

Annual OCF = Pretax Operating Costs * (1 - tax) + tax * Depreciation

Annual OCF = -$63,000 * (1 - 0.22) + 0.22 * $81,666.67

Annual OCF = -$31,173.33

NPV = -$245,000 - $31,173.33 * PVIFA(10%, 3) + $31,200 * PVIF(10%, 3)

NPV = -$245,000 - $31,173.33 * 2.4869 + $31,200 * 0.7513

NPV = -$299,084.39

EAC = NPV / PVIFA(10%, 3)

EAC = -$299,084.39 / 2.4869

EAC = -$120,263.94

Techron II:

Cost of Machine = $420,000

Useful Life = 5 years

Annual Depreciation = Cost of Machine / Useful Life

Annual Depreciation = $420,000 / 5

Annual Depreciation = $84,000

Salvage Value = $40,000

After-tax Salvage Value = $40,000 * (1 - 0.22)

After-tax Salvage Value = $31,200

Annual OCF = Pretax Operating Costs * (1 - tax) + tax * Depreciation

Annual OCF = -$35,000 * (1 - 0.22) + 0.22 * $84,000

Annual OCF = -$8,820

NPV = -$420,000 - $8,820 * PVIFA(10%, 5) + $31,200 * PVIF(10%, 5)

NPV = -$420,000 - $8,820 * 3.7908 + $31,200 * 0.6209

NPV = -$434,062.78

EAC = NPV / PVIFA(10%, 5)

EAC = -$434,062.78 / 3.7908

EAC = -$114,504.27

5 0
3 years ago
Ploeger Corporation has provided the following contribution format income statement. Assume that the following information is wi
Natasha_Volkova [10]

Answer:

Break-even point (dollars)= $234,000

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

Sales (4,000 units) $ 240,000

Variable expenses 156,000

Fixed expenses 81,900

First, we need to calculate the selling price and unitary variable cost:

Selling price= 240,000/4,000= $60 per unit

Unitary variable cost= 156,000/4,000= $39 per unit

Now, we can calculate the break-even point in dollars, using the following formula:

Break-even point (dollars)= fixed costs/ contribution margin ratio

Break-even point (dollars)= 81,900/ [(60 - 39)/60]

Break-even point (dollars)= $234,000

5 0
3 years ago
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