Answer:
−π
----
4
Step-by-step explanation:
Alright, archtan /
tan
−
1
(
x
)
is the inverse of tangent. Tan is
sin
cos
. Like the inverse of sin, the inverse of tan is also restricted to quadrants 1 and 4.
Knowing this we are solving for the inverse of tan -1. We are basically being asked the question what angle/radian does tan(-1) equal. Using the unit circle we can see that tan(1)= pi/4.
Since the "Odds and Evens Identity" states that tan(-x) = -tan(x). Tan(-1)= -pi/4.
Knowing that tan is negative in quadrants 2 and 4. the answer is in either of those two quadrants. BUT!!! since inverse of tan is restricted to quadrants 1 and 4 we are left with the only answer -pi/4.
Answer: the slope would be -4/3 and the y intercept is 2
Step-by-step explanation: you would have to divide both sides by 3 to get y by itself. that leaves you with -4/3x + 2
Answer:49 degrees
Step-by-step explanation: because all the opposite angles are same and alternative angles makes it same too plz mark me brainiest
Answer:
She sold 3 computer games and 4 board games.
Step-by-step explanation:
If I am doing this right you subtract 9 from 43 until you get the lowest number that you can subtract 9 from 43 thats goes into 4. You then subtract 4 until you get 0.
Sorry if this is confusing I didn't know how to explain it well.
Answer:
F = $11,421.90
Final value after 5 years F = $11,421.90
Complete question;
You purchased a vehicle for $32,000. It's value will depreciate at a rate of 18.62%. What will it's value be in 5 years, when you finally have it paid off
Step-by-step explanation:
Given;
Initial value P = $32,000
Depreciation rate r = 18.62% = 0.1862
Time t = 5
Final value = F
Using the compound depreciation formula;
F = P(1 - r)^t
Substituting the values;
F = $32,000(1 - 0.1862)^5
F = $11,421.90
Final value F = $11,421.90
