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ololo11 [35]
3 years ago
15

Which statement is true?

Business
1 answer:
horrorfan [7]3 years ago
4 0
I think it can be the "D"
You might be interested in
Smith Company reported pretax book income of $400,000. Included in the computation were favorable temporary differences of $50,0
Hoochie [10]

Answer:

$10,200

Explanation:

The computation of the deferred income tax expense or benefit is shown below:

Favorable temporary difference = $50,000

Less:  Unfavorable temporary difference -$20,000

Net favorable temporary difference $30,000

We assume the tax rate is of 34%

So, the deferred tax expense is

= $30,000 × 34%

= $10,200

By finding out the net favorable temporary difference and then multiplied with the tax rate we can get the deferred tax expense and the same is shown above

3 0
3 years ago
A deadweight loss is a consequence of a tax on a good because the tax a. induces the government to increase its expenditures. b.
zalisa [80]

Answer:

B) induces buyers to consume less, and sellers to produce less.

Explanation:

Taxes are a necessary evil since they always increase the price of the goods and services that consumers buy and decrease the amount of money that producers receive from selling their goods and services. But taxes are necessary and unavoidable.

But once a market assumes all the effects of existing taxes it reaches an equilibrium price that both consumers and producers are satisfied with. If a new tax is levied than the deadweight losses are greater since consumer surplus and producer surplus are both reduced. This will lead to a reduction in the incentive that both consumers and producers have to engage in transactions. Many times consumers will substitute heavily taxed goods for other goods since they feel they are getting more from consuming those goods (consumer surplus). The same happens to producers, many producers will change their heavily taxed goods for other goods.

If the price elasticity of demand or supply of a certain good is large (elastic demand and supply), the deadweight loss will be greater.

7 0
3 years ago
A bond has a face value of $1,000, a coupon of 5% paid annually, a maturity of 34 years, and a yield to maturity of 8%. What rat
Lyrx [107]

Answer:

- 3.21%

Explanation:

In this question, we use the PV formula which is shown in the spreadsheet.  

The NPER represents the time period.

Given that,  

Future value = $1,000

PMT = 1,000 × 5% = 50

NPER = 34 years -  1 year =  33 year

Rate of interest = 9%

The formula is shown below:

= -PV(Rate;NPER;PMT;FV;type)

So, after solving this, the present value would be $581.42

Now the return would be

=  Sale price + interest - purchase price

= $581.42 + $50 - $652.39

= -$20.97

And, the total return would be

=  Return ÷ purchase price

=  -$20.97 ÷ $652.39

= - 3.21%

5 0
3 years ago
Which of the following is not an example of one of the four mail advantages of prices on a free market economy
Arte-miy333 [17]
The correct answer is

8 0
3 years ago
The Timken Company has announced a rights offer to raise $5.1 million. The company's stock currently sells for $34 per share, th
omeli [17]

Answer:

Right price =$33.50

Explanation:

<em>The theoretical ex-right price is the weighted average price at which shares are expected to settle after a right-issue,</em>

<em>It is the weighted average price of value of shares of the before-right price and the right price</em>

Ex-rights price

=(Before-right value of shares + Proceed from rights )/Total number of shares after rights issue

Number of rights issue units = amount to be raised /Right price per share

= $5.1 m/$30 = 170,000 units

Before - rights value = 1,207,000 × $34 = 41,038,000

Proceed from rights = 170,000 × $30 = 5,100,000

The ex-right price = (41,038,000 + 5,100,00)/(1,207,000 +170,000) units

Right price =$33.50

8 0
3 years ago
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