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abruzzese [7]
3 years ago
8

What do individual shareholders gain when they buy shares of a company’s stock?

Business
1 answer:
olchik [2.2K]3 years ago
6 0
It will definitely be A
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Lila purchased Hampton Industries Inc. stock for $18.35 and sold it 6 months later for $21.45 after receiving a $0.50 dividend.
Scorpion4ik [409]

Answer:

HPR = 19.62 %

APR = 39.24 %

EAR = 43.09 %

Explanation:

a.Calculation of Holding Period Return :

The formula for calculating the holding period Return is

= ( Sale price + Dividend earned during the holding period – Purchase Price ) / Purchase Price

As per the information given in the question is

Purchase Price : $ 18.35

Sale price : $ 21.45

Dividend per share = $ 0.50

Applying the above values in the formula we have

= ( 21.45 + 0.50 – 18.35 ) / 18.35

= 3.60 / 18.35

= 0.196185 = 19.6185 %

= 19.62 % ( when rounded off to two decimal places )

Thus the HPY i.e., Holding period return is 19.62 %

b.Calculation of Annual Percentage Rate :

The formula for calculating the Annual Percentage Rate = Holding period return / n

Where n = Period of Investment / 12 months

We know that the period of Investment = 6 months

Thus n = 6 / 12 = 0.50

Holding Period Return = 19.62 %

Applying the above values in the formula we have

Annual Percentage Rate = 19.62 % / 0.50

= 39.24 %

Thus the Annual Percentage Rate = 39.24 %

c. Calculation of Effective Annual Return :

The formula for calculating the Effective annual rate = ( 1 + Return ) ( 1/n ) - 1

Where Return = Holding period return = 19.62 % = 0.1962

N = No. of years = ( 6 / 12 ) years = 0.5 years

Applying the above values in the formula we have

= ( 1 + 0.1962 ) ( 1 / 0.5 ) - 1

= ( 1.1962 ) 2 - 1

= 1.430894 – 1

= 0.430894 = 43.0891 %

= 43.09 % ( when rounded off to two decimal places )

Thus the Effective annual rate = 43.09 %

NOTE : The value of ( 1.1962 )2   has been calculated using the excel function =POWER(Number,Power). Thus =POWER(1.1962,2) = 1.430894

Thus we have :

HPR = 19.62 %   ; APR = 39.24 %   ; EAR = 43.09 %

4 0
4 years ago
A bank offers the following certificates of deposit: Nominal annual interest rate Term in years (convertible quarterly) 1 4% 3 5
Ymorist [56]

Answer:

i = 5.48%

Explanation:

We can use the following method to solve the given problem in the question.

Two consecutive 3 year CDs:

=10000 * (1+(0.05/4))^12 * (1+.(0.05/4))^12 = 13, 473.51

One 5 year CD and a 1 year CD:

=10000 * (1+(0.0565/4))^20 * (1+.(0.04/4))^4 = 13,775.75

13,775.75 is the greater.

The annual effective rate is

=10000 * (1+I)^6 = 13,775.75

i = 5.48%

5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Differentiate between import qouta and import duty?
Wittaler [7]

Answer:

The main difference is that quotas restrict quantity while tariff works through prices. Thus, quota is a quantitative limit through imports. ... 5.3) amount is imposed then price would rise to Pt because the total supply (domestic output plus imports) equals total demand at that price.

<h2><em><u>Hope this helps..</u></em></h2>
3 0
3 years ago
MILLS ALLOCATES MANUFACTURING OVERHEAD TO PRODUCTION BASED ON STANDARD DIRECT LABOR HOURS. MILLS REPORTED THE FOLLOWING ACTUAL R
tekilochka [14]

Answer:

1. Compute the variable overhead cost and efficiency variances and fixed overhead cost and volume variances.

  • variable overhead cost variance = $1,000 unfavorable
  • variable efficiency variance = -$1,200 favorable
  • fixed overhead costs = $1,500 unfavorable
  • fixed overhead volume variance = -$100 favorable

2. EXPLAIN (as best you can) why the variances are favorable or unfavorable. Based on cost and efficiency budget standards.

  • variable overhead cost variance is unfavorable because actual variable overhead costs per unit are higher than budgeted.
  • variable efficiency variance is favorable because the company used less direct labor hours than budgeted to produce a higher amount of units (1,600 vs. 2,000).
  • fixed overhead costs are unfavorable because total fixed overhead costs were much higher than budgeted, but most of this variance can be explained by higher output.
  • fixed overhead volume variance are favorable because a higher volume was produced using less hours than budgeted.

Explanation:

Static budget variable overhead $1,200

Actual variable overhead $4,000

Static budget fixed overhead $1,600

Actual fixed overhead $3,100

Static budget direct labor hours 800 hours

Actual direct labor hours 1,600

Static budget number of units 400 units

Actual units produced 1,000

Standard direct labor hours 2 hours per unit

Actual direct labor hours 1.6 per unit

standard variable rate = $1,200 / 400 units = $3 per unit

actual variable rate = $4,000 / 1,000 units = $4 per unit

standard fixed rate = $1,600 / 800 hours = $2 per hour

actual fixed rate = $3,100 / 1,600 hours = $1.9375 per hour

variable overhead cost variance = actual costs - (standard rate x actual units) = $4,000 - ($3 x 1,000) = $1,000 unfavorable

variable efficiency variance = (actual hours x standard rate) - (standard hours x standard rate) = (1,600 × $3) − (2,000 x $3) = $4,800 - $6,000 = -$1,200 favorable

fixed overhead costs = actual overhead costs - budgeted overhead costs = $3,100 - $1,600 = $1,500 unfavorable

fixed overhead volume variance = (actual fixed rate x actual hours) - (standard rate x actual hours) = ($1.9375 x 1,600) - ($ x 1,600) = $3,100 - $3,200 = -$100 favorable

5 0
4 years ago
A designer draws two circles, each of area 3.14 square feet. The centers of the circles are 4 feet apart. Do the circles overlap
puteri [66]

Answer:

No, the circles do not overlap

Explanation:

r = Radius of circle

A = Area = 3.14 square feet

Area of one circle

A=\pi r^2

\Rightarrow 3.14=3.14r^2

\Rightarrow r=1\ \text{ft}

The radius of the each of the circles is 1 ft.

If the circles centers are 4 ft apart then the distance between the curves of the circle will be 2 ft apart.

So, the circles do not overlap each other. This is shown in the diagram.

3 0
3 years ago
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