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Stels [109]
3 years ago
5

Combine like terms to create an equivalent expression. 1/7 - 3 (3/7n - 2/7)

Mathematics
1 answer:
Nookie1986 [14]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

-2 6/7 (3/7n - 2/7)

Step-by-step explanation:

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A golfball is hit from the ground with an initial velocity of 200 ft/sec. The horizontal distance that the golfball will travel,
algol13

Answer:

The golfball launched with an initial velocity of 200ft/s will travel the maximum possible distance which is 1250 ft when it is hit at an angle of \pi/4.

Step-by-step explanation:

The formula from the maximum distance of a projectile with initial height h=0, is:

d(\theta)=\frac{v_i^2sin(2\theta)}{g}

Where v_i is the initial velocity.

In the closed interval method, the first step is to find the values of the function in the critical points in the interval which is [0, \pi/2]. The critical  points of the function are those who make d'(\theta)=0:

d(\theta)=\frac{v_i^2\sin(2\theta)}{g}\\d'(\theta)=\frac{v_i^2\cos(2\theta)}{g}*(2)\\d'(\theta)=\frac{2v_i^2\cos(2\theta)}{g}

d'(\theta)=0\\\frac{2v_i^2\cos(2\theta)}{g}=0\\\cos(2\theta)=0\\2\theta=\pi/2,3\pi/2,5\pi/2,...\\\theta=\pi/4,3\pi/4,5\pi/4,...

The critical value inside the interval is \pi/4.

d(\theta)=\frac{v_i^2sin(2\theta)}{g}\\d(\pi/4)=\frac{v_i^2sin(2(\pi/4))}{g}\\d(\pi/4)=\frac{v_i^2sin(\pi/2)}{g}\\d(\pi/4)=\frac{v_i^2(1)}{g}\\d(\pi/4)=\frac{(200)^2}{32}\\d(\pi/4)=\frac{40000}{32}\\d(\pi/4)=1250ft

The second step is to find the values of the function at the endpoints of the interval:

d(\theta)=\frac{v_i^2sin(2\theta)}{g}\\\theta=0\\d(0)=\frac{v_i^2sin(2(0))}{g}\\d(0)=\frac{v_i^2(0)}{g}=0ft\\\theta=\pi/2\\d(\pi/2)=\frac{v_i^2sin(2(\pi/2))}{g}\\d(\pi/2)=\frac{v_i^2sin(\pi)}{g}\\d(\pi/2)=\frac{v_i^2(0)}{g}=0ft

The biggest value of f is gived by \pi/4, therefore \pi/4 is the absolute maximum.

In the context of the problem, the golfball launched with an initial velocity of 200ft/s will travel the maximum possible distance which is 1250 ft when it is hit at an angle of \pi/4.

4 0
3 years ago
at an amusement park there are 5150 moon shoes and 3041 cactus plants there are a total of 10881 prizes how many hats are at the
Mariana [72]
Easy. 8 hats because no one likes hats anymore.
3 0
3 years ago
Working alone, it would take Shandra 45 minutes to mow the lawn. To mow the same lawn, also working alone, it would take Kelly 1
Nadusha1986 [10]

Given: Shandra can do the complete work in 45 minutes.

So, Shandra's 1-minute work = 1 / 45  and

Kelly can do the same complete work in 1 hour and 15 minutes = 75 minutes.

So, Kelly's 1-minute work = 1 / 75

Now, we shall calculate Shandra's and Kelly's 1-minute work

By both 1 minute work = (1/45) + (1 / 75) = 8 / 225

∵ 8 /225 Parts can be completed by both = in 1 minute

∴ Complete work (1) can be completed by both = 225 / 8 minutes

or,                                                                           = in 28 minutes and 7.5 second

Hence, the assumption taken by both was incorrect.

The best described time will be 28 minutes and 8 seconds.  

5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Pl help it’s for a grade show work if you can
Savatey [412]

Answer:

m degree 2

Step-by-step explanation:

mujhe 1 hii pata hai sorry

8 0
3 years ago
Shishir bought 4000 orange at 70 paisa each. But 400 of them were rotten. He sold 2000 oranges at 90 paisa each.If he plans to m
Ipatiy [6.2K]

Answer:

He needs to sell the rest of the oranges at 75 paisa each.

Step-by-step explanation:

Consider the given information that, Shishir bought 4000 orange at 70 paisa each.

Note: 1 rupees = 100 paisa

Thus, 70 paisa = 70/100 rupees = 0.70 rupees

Therefore, the cost price of 4000 oranges is:

4000×0.70 rupees = 2800 rupees

The selling price of 2000 oranges is:

2000×0.90 rupees = 1800 rupees

The number of oranges now Shishir have:

4000 - 2000 - 400 = 1600

He wants to make a profit of RS 200. Thus the selling price of 4000 oranges should be:

2800 rupees + 200 rupees = 3000 rupees

He earned 1800 rupees by selling 2000 oranges at 90 paisa. So, the remaining amount that he needs to make with 1600 oranges is:

3000 rupees - 1800 rupees = 1200 rupees

Therefore, the cost of one orange is:

1600 oranges = 1200 rupees

1 orange = 1200/1600 rupees

1 orange = 0.75 rupees

Hence, he needs to sell the rest of the oranges at 75 paisa each.

4 0
3 years ago
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