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Leokris [45]
2 years ago
5

Multiply out and simplify to obtain a minimum sum-of-products boolean expression:

Mathematics
1 answer:
max2010maxim [7]2 years ago
5 0

Answer:

As per the question, we need to convert product of sum into sum of product,

Given:

(A' +B+C')(A'+C'+D)(B'+D'),

At first, we will solve to parenthesis,

= (A'+C'+BD) (B'+D')

As per the Rule, (A+B)(A+C) = A+BC, In our case if we assume X = A'+C', then,

(A' +B+C')(A'+C'+D) = (A'+C'+B)(A'+C'+D) = (A'+C'+BD)

Now,  

= (A'+C'+BD) (B'+D') = A'B' + A'D' + C'B' +C'D' +BDB' +BDD"

As we know that AA' =  0, it mean

=A'B'+A'D'+C'B'+C'D'+D*0+B0

=A'B'+A'D'+C'B'+C'D'               as B * 0 and D*0 = 0

Finally, minimum sum of product boolean expression is

A''B'+A'D'+C'B'+C'D'

=

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A couple intends to have two children, and suppose that approximately 52% of births are male and 48% are female.
Pachacha [2.7K]

a) Probability of both being males is 27%

b) Probability of both being females is 23%

c) Probability of having exactly one male and one female is 50%

Step-by-step explanation:

a)

The probability that the birth is a male can be written as

p(m) = 0.52 (which corresponds to 52%)

While the probability that the birth is a female can be written as

p(f) = 0.48 (which corresponds to 48%)

Here we want to calculate the probability that over  2 births, both are male. Since the two births are two independent events (the probability of the 2nd to be a male  does not depend on the fact that the 1st one is a male), then the probability of both being males is given by the product of the individual probabilities:

p(mm)=p(m)\cdot p(m)

And substituting, we find

p(mm)=0.52\cdot 0.52 = 0.27

So, 27%.

b)

In this case, we want to find the probability that both children are female, so the probability

p(ff)

As in the previous case, the probability of the 2nd child to be a female is independent from whether the 1st one is a male or a female: therefore, we can apply the rule for independent events, and this means that the probability that both children are females is the product of the individual probability of a child being a female:

p(ff)=p(f)\cdot p(f)

And substituting

p(f)=0.48

We find:

p(ff)=0.48\cdot 0.48=0.23

Which means 23%.

c)

In this case, we want to find the probability they have exactly one male and exactly one female child. This is given by the sum of two probabilities:

- The probability that 1st child is a male and 2nd child is a female, namely p(mf)

- The probability that 1st child is a female and 2nd child is a male, namely p(fm)

So, this probability is

p(mf Ufm)=p(mf)+p(fm)

We have:

p(mf)=p(m)\cdot p(f)=0.52\cdot 0.48=0.25

p(fm)=p(f)\cdot p(m)=0.48\cdot 0.52=0.25

Therefore, this probability is

p(mfUfm)=0.25+0.25=0.50

So, 50%.

Learn more about probabilities:

brainly.com/question/5751004

brainly.com/question/6649771

brainly.com/question/8799684

brainly.com/question/7888686

#LearnwithBrainly

5 0
3 years ago
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