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algol [13]
3 years ago
13

Tamarisk, Inc. just began business and made the following four inventory purchases in June: June 1 162 units $972 June 10 216 un

its 1512 June 15 216 units 1728 June 28 162 units 1458 $5670 A physical count of merchandise inventory on June 30 reveals that there are 216 units on hand. Using the FIFO inventory method, the amount allocated to ending inventory for June is
Business
1 answer:
Marta_Voda [28]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

Inventory= $1,890

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

Tamarisk, Inc. just began business and made the following four inventory purchases in June:

June 1: 162 units $972

June 10: 216 units  $1512

June 15: 216 units $1728 (1728/216=8)

June 28: 162 units $1458 (1458/162=9)

A physical count of merchandise inventory on June 30 reveals that there are 216 units on hand.

FIFO (first-in, first-out)

Inventory= 162*9 + 54*8= $1,890

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The market value of​ Fords' equity, preferred​ stock, and debt are $ 7 ​billion, $ 2 ​billion, and $ 15 ​billion, respectively.
Stolb23 [73]

Answer:

Ford's weighted average cost of capital is 8.22 %

Explanation:

Weighted Average Cost of Capital (WACC) is the minimum return that the company expect from a project. It shows the risk of the company.

Calculation of WACC

WACC = Cost of equity + Cost of preferred​ stock + Cost of debt

Capital Source       Market Values     Weight      Cost      Total Cost

equity                         $ 7 ​billion          29.17%      13.6%       3.97 %

preferred​ stock         $ 2 ​billion            8.33%      12%          1.00 %

debt                           $ 15 ​billion         62.50%     5.2 %       3.25%

Total                          $ 24 billion                                          8.22 %

Cost of equity = Risk free rate + Beta × Risk Premium

                       =  4% + 1.2 × 8%

                       =  13.6%

Cost of preferred​ stock = Dividend/Market Price

                                       = $ 3/ $ 25 × 100

                                       = 12%

Cost of debt = interest × (1- tax rate)

                    = 8% × (1-0.35)

                    = 5.2 %

7 0
3 years ago
In order to be impartial and lawful, a pre- inspection agreement must be
lakkis [162]
A. paid for by the lender. 
<span>B. signed by the real estate agent. </span>
<span>C. used within 30 days </span>
<span>D. negotiable and capable of being altered. </span>

<span>The Standards of Practice published by the American Society of Home Inspectors (ASHI) are quite inclusive and </span>
<span>A. describe the procedures used in a termite inspection. </span>
<span>B. explain that inspectors may never examine heating systems. </span>
<span>C. can be referred to in court, if necessary. </span>
<span>D. list the fees inspectors must charge for their services </span>
<span>(I know for this question it is NOT D.) </span>

<span>Another term for a pre-inspection agreement is </span>
<span>A. standard of practice </span>
<span>B. pre-sale inspection. </span>
<span>C. scope of work. </span>
<span>D. partial inspection. 
hope that helped</span>
8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Castle Leasing Company signs a lease agreement on January 1, 2020, to lease electronic equipment to Jan Way Company. The term of
lisov135 [29]

Answer:

A. 01-01-2020

Dr Lease receivable $160,000

Dr Cost of goods sold $105,488

Cr Sales $145,488

Cr Inventory $120,000

12/31/20

Dr Cash $78,244

Cr Lease receivable $70,244

Cr Interest revenue $8,000

12/31/21

Dr Cash $78,244

Cr Lease receivable $73,756

Cr Interest revenue $4,488

B. Dec 31,2021

Dr Cash $ 16,000

Cr Sales revenue $ 16,000

Explanation:

Preparation of the journal entries

First step is to Compute the annual payments

Present Value of lease payment

Fair value $160,000

less: present value of residual value $14,512

(16000*0.90703)

Present value of lease payment $145,488

Annual lease payment (145488/1.85941) = $78,244

Present value of $ 1 at 5 % 2 periods = 0.90703

Present value of an ordinary annuity of $ 1 at 5 % 2 periods = 1.85941

Second step is to computer the Lease Amortization Schedule

CASTLE LEASING COMPANY (Lessor)

Lease Amortization Schedule

1/1/20 $160,000

12/31/20 $78,244 $8,000 $70,244 $89,756

12/31/21 $78,244 $4,488 $73,756 $16,000

12/31/21 $16,000 0 $16,000 0

12/31/20

($160,000*5%)=$8,000

$78,244-$8,000=$70,244

$160,000-$70,244=$89,756

12/31/21

($89,756*5%)=$4,488

$78,244 -$4,488=$73,756

$89,756-$73,756=$16,000

Lease Receivable = ($78,244 × 1.85941) + ($16,000 × 0.90703)

Lease Receivable = $160,000

Cost of Goods Sold = $120,000 - ($16,000 × 0.90703)

Cost of Goods Sold= $105,488

Sales Revenue = $160,000 - (16,000 × 0.90703) Sales Revenue = $145,488

Now let prepare the JOURNAL ENTRIES

A. Preparation of the journal entries on the books of Castle Leasing to reflect the payments received under the lease and to recognize income for the years 2020 and 2021.

01-01-2020

Dr Lease receivable $160,000

Dr Cost of goods sold $105,488

Cr Sales $145,488

Cr Inventory (given) $120,000

( To record lease )

12/31/20

Dr Cash $78,244

Cr Lease receivable $70,244

Cr Interest revenue $8,000

($160,000*5%)

(To record interest revenue for Dec 2020)

12/31/21

Dr Cash $78,244

Cr Lease receivable $73,756

Cr Interest revenue $4,488

(To record interest revenue for Dec 2021)

B. Preparation of the journal entry to record the sale on Castle Leasing's books.

Dec 31,2021

Dr Cash $ 16,000

Cr Sales revenue $ 16,000

( To record sale on castle leasing's books )

6 0
3 years ago
India has 3 GDP of 23,000 billion Indian rupees, and a population of 1.1 billion. Theexchange rate is 50 rupees per US. dollar.
vekshin1

Answer:

Indian rupee in US dollars = $418

Explanation:

given data

India GDP = 23,000 billion

exchange rate = 50 rupees per US

population = 1.1 billion

solution

we get here GDP per capita as

GDP per capita = India GDP ÷ population

GDP per capita  = \frac{23000}{1.1}  

GDP per capita  = 20909 rupees

so here we Convert Indian rupee in US dollars that is with exchange rate

Indian rupee in US dollars = GDP per capita  ÷ exchange rate

Indian rupee in US dollars = \frac{20909}{50}  

Indian rupee in US dollars = $418

7 0
3 years ago
Create objectives (SMART goals) using the REAN FRAMEWORK.
marin [14]

Answer:

Beauty shop or hairdresser

Explanation:

Since you like Barbie's

3 0
2 years ago
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