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Soloha48 [4]
3 years ago
8

An operational plan provides a detailed road map of the steps necessary to achieve operational goals (sometimes referred to as o

bjectives). Although there are many specific types of operational plans, they can be broadly characterized as either single-use plans or standing plans. A program plan is an example of a ______
Business
1 answer:
lesya692 [45]3 years ago
4 0

Answer: single use plan

Explanation: In simple words,single use plan refers to the plan that is made for achieving a goal that will not repeat in future.

A program plan refers to the plan that an organisation makes with an objective of outlining the activities and events that the employees have to follow for achieving organisational goals.  

Hence, from the above we can conclude that a program is a single use plan as it outlines activities for a specific project that needs to be performed.  

You might be interested in
Maggie's Muffins, Inc., generated $2,000,000 in sales during 2015, and its year-end total assets were $1,400,000. Also, at year-
Ksenya-84 [330]

Answer:

The Sales will increase by $350,000 (2000,000 * 17.5%)

Explanation:

As we know that,

Self Supporting Growth Rate = Return on Equity * (1 - Payout Ratio) ...Eq1

Here

Payout ratio given is 50%

and

Return on Equity =  35% <u>(Step 1)</u>

By putting values in Eq1, we have:

Self Supporting Growth Rate = 35% * (1 - 50%)

Self Supporting Growth Rate = 17.5%

Which means that Sales will increase by $350,000 (2000,000 * 17.5%) which is 17.5%.

<u>Step 1: Find Return on Equity</u>

We know that:

Return on Equity = Net Income / Equity ..............Eq2

As we are not given value of Net Income we can not calculate the value of return on equity. But there is another way that we can calculate by simply multiplying and dividing by sales on Left hand side of the Eq2 equation.

Return on Equity = Net Income / Equity          * Sales / Sales

By rearranging, we have:

Return on Equity = Net Income / Sales  *   Sales / Equity

Now here,

Net Income / Sales  = Profit Margin

By putting this in the above equation, we have:

Return on Equity = Profit Margin  * Sales / Equity

Here

Profit Margin is 7% given in the question.

Sales were $2,000,000

And  

Equity is $400,000 <u>(Step 2)</u>

By putting values, we have:

Return on Equity = 7%  * $2,000,000 / $400,000

Return on Equity = <u>35%</u>

<u>Step 2. Find Equity</u>

Equity = Assets - Liabilities

Here,

Assets are worth $1,400,000

Liabilities are standing at $1,000,000 which includes only current liabilities because company doesn't have any long term borrowings

By putting the values, we have:

Equity = $1,400,000 - $1,000,000 = <u>$400,000</u>

<u>Brother, don't forget to rate the answer.</u>

5 0
3 years ago
The purpose of a statement of retained earnings is to: __________.
marusya05 [52]

Answer:

To determine the closing balance of retained earnings

Explanation:

First and foremost, retained earnings are an important part of the shareholders' equity. In a bid to ascertain the correct position of total shareholders' equity at year-end, it is important that a statement of retained earnings reconciling the opening retained with net income and dividends declared during the year is prepared.

The balance at the end of the year is the total accumulated earnings which have not been distributed to shareholders as dividends or which may be used to finance projects that increase shareholders' wealth

4 0
3 years ago
A company uses the percent of sales method to determine its bad debts expense. At the end of the current year, the company's una
ollegr [7]

Answer:

Bad debt expense A/c Dr  $4,900

           To Allowance for doubtful debts  $4,900

(Being bad debt expense is recorded)

Explanation:

The journal entry is shown below;

Bad debt expense A/c Dr  $4,900

           To Allowance for doubtful debts  $4,900

(Being bad debt expense is recorded)

The computation of the bad debt expense is shown below:

= Net Credit sales × estimated percentage given  - credit balance of allowance for doubtful debts

= $920,000 × 0.6%  - $620

= $5,520 - $620

= $4,900

6 0
3 years ago
Bond funds: a) Will lose all value if a single bond defaults b) Are investment bargains because their price is so low c) Are ris
Vsevolod [243]

Answer:

Spread the risk of individual bonds by collectively owning more and less-risky bonds, with higher and lower rates of return

Explanation:

A bond fund is a pooled investment vehicle that invests in various types of bonds. the types of bonds invested in includes cooperate bonds, government bonds and municipal bonds.

The primary objective of bond funds is to generate revenue for investors

Because bond fund is an aggregation of various types of bonds, the risk of the bond fund is lower than the risk of holding any corporate bonds. This is because risks are spread.

4 0
3 years ago
The marginal product of labor in the production of computer chips is 3030 chips per hour. The marginal rate of technical substit
fredd [130]

Answer:

150

Explanation:

As we know that

The marginal rate of technical substitution ​(MRTS) = Marginal product of labor ÷ Marginal product of capital

where,

The marginal rate of technical substitution ​(MRTS) = 0.20

And, the marginal product of labor is 30 chips per hour

So, the marginal product of capital is

= 30 chips per hour ÷ 0.20

= 150

The marginal rate of technical substitution ​(MRTS​) shows a relationship between the marginal product of labor and the marginal product of capital

5 0
3 years ago
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