In measuring an impairment loss for a financial asset under U.S. GAAP and under IFRS, the carrying value of the financial asset would be compared to:
under U.S. GAAP Fair value and under IFRS recoverable amount.
Explanation:
In US GAAP, the cost of financial asset depreciation is calculated as the difference between carried value and fair value; in compliance with IFRS, a loss of financial asset impairment is defined as the difference between carrying value and the percentage of the asset that can be recouped.
In compliance with US-based ASC 360-10-35-20. The recovery of a historically identified impairment loss (or "restoration") is forbidden because an item is deemed to have a new cost base after an impairment loss has been registered.
Answer:
C. When the recipient was not included on the original email.
Explanation:
This is the correct option because forwarding allows the new recipient to see the email that was sent if they were not originally included.
~theLocoCoco
I'm assuming single means non-married, in that case your max repayment would be $1,250
Answer:
$50
Explanation:
As per previous balance method the Interest is charged based on the opening balance of the Credit Card.
As $50 was the balance from previous month and opening balance for this month, Hence $50 would be the amount we would use to calculate the interest for this month.
Answer:
A debit to the Finished Goods Inventory account and a credit to the Work in Process account for the final department in the series of process
Explanation:
In the case when the process related to the production is finished so the completed goods and accumulated profits could be transferred
So, the following should be the journal entry
Finished goods inventory XXXXX
To Work in Process Inventory - Final dept XXXXX
(Being the production process is completed recorded)
Here the finished goods is debited as it increased the assets and credited the work in process as it decreased the assets