Answer:The major advantage of avoidance technique in risk management is that it is cheaper than every other method of risk management.
It is possible to avoid all potential loss by company
Explanation:The technique of avoidance save the company deploying it in risk management the stress of paying fines ,loss of funds , reputational damages that may arise among other things should a potential risk crystallized into full blown loss.it involves setting up method or safeguard that protects the institution from a certain level of risk ,it might involves abstaining from certain trasaction as a whole or setting risk limits for certain amount of trasaction,above this limits,it's no deal.
It is possible to avoid potential loss to a barest minimum by adopting the best risk management techniques as applicable,this include hedging in case of currency exchange ,taking insurance against unforseen circumstances, adopting industry best practices,avoiding illegal or overly risky ventures,having a proper risk management team in place.etc
It was more profitable for gm and ford to integrate
backward into component-parts manufacturing in the past because manufacturing costs less than if
materials are purchased from the suppliers and <span>both companies are now buying more of their parts from outside
suppliers because it<span> was more skillful to purchase raw materials, and then change them into
operational parts, and use them to create a final product.</span></span>
Answer:
The answer is option A). $6,710.60
Explanation:
The total amount Al miler will need to invest at the beginning to have the money in 15 years is known as the principal amount.
The formula for calculating the total amount after 15 years with interest compounded semiannually is as follows;
A = P (1 + r/n) (nt)
where;
A = the future value of the initial investment
P = initial investment amount/principal amount
r = the annual interest rate
n = the number of times that interest is compounded per unit t
t = the time the money is invested for
In our case;
A=$29,000
P=p
r=10/100=0.1
n=interest is compounded semiannually which is twice a year=2
t=15 years
Replacing values in the formula;
29,000=p(1+0.1/2)^(2×15)
29,000=p(1+0.05)^30
29,000=4.322 p
p=29,000/4.322
p=$6,710
Al must invest $6,710 for him to have enough money for the new equipment in 15 years
Answer:
The answer is True.
Explanation:
This is a question of "The luxury Swiss chalet hotel general manager reported to her owner". "Total dollars" and "Dollars per available room" are variable cost measure used in the hospitality industry.
Answer:
$24,500
Explanation:
Given that,
Maturity value of bonds outstanding = $270,000
Unamortized discount = $11,000 they were called in at 105.
Net carrying amount of bonds redeemed:
= Maturity value - Unamortized discount
= $270,000 - $11,000
= $259,000
Re-acquisition price:
= Maturity value × Called at 105
= $270,000 × 1.05
= $283,500
Loss on redemption:
= Re-acquisition price - Net carrying amount of bonds redeemed
= $283,500 - $259,000
= $24,500
