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Vsevolod [243]
3 years ago
5

If the commercial is TRUE that every additional bite of food tastes as good as the first, the marginal utility from consuming mo

re of the advertised product must be zero. decreasing. increasing. constant.
Business
1 answer:
zlopas [31]3 years ago
4 0

Answer: If the commercial is TRUE that every additional bite of food tastes as good as the first, the marginal utility from consuming more of the advertised product must be CONSTANT. Option D.

Explanation:

Marginal utility is the additional satisfaction an individual gets, from consuming an additional unit of a product or service.

Therefore, in the scenario given above, if every additional bite of food tastes as good as the first, then the additional satisfaction is just as good as the preceding satisfaction. We can therefore say that the marginal utility gotten from consuming that product is constant.

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You plan on making a $235.15 monthly deposit into an account that pays 3.2% interest, compounded monthly, for 20 years. At the e
erma4kov [3.2K]

Answer:

Monthly payment = $769.27

Explanation:

First we have to determine the future value of the ordinary annuity:

Payment = $235.15

N = 20 * 12 = 240

Rate = 3.2% / 12 = 0.267%

Using a financial calculator and the FV function, the FV = $78,910.41

Again, using the financial calculator or Excel, you can determine the monthly payment:

N = 10 / 12 = 120

Rate = 0.267%

PV = $78,910.41

FV = $0

Monthly payment = $769.27

8 0
3 years ago
Neutrino Industries stock trades at $49 per share and there are 120 million shares outstanding. The management would like to rai
Gelneren [198K]

Answer:

Neutrino Industries must sell <u>8.68 million shares</u> to raise $400 million.

Explanation:

To calculate this, let B represents the number of shares Neutrino Industries must sell. Therefore, we have:

Gross proceeds = $49 * B, or $49B

Underwriter charges = 6% * $49B = $2.94B

To raise $400 million, we deduct the underwriter charges from gross proceeds and solve for B as follows:

$49B – $2.94B = $400,000,000

$46.06B = 400,000,000

B = 400,000,000 / 46.06

B = 8,684,324.79 shares, or 8.68 million shares.

Therefore, Neutrino Industries must sell <u>8.68 million shares</u> to raise $400 million.

4 0
3 years ago
"which expenses would most likely be classified as prepaid expenses (asset) rather than accrued expenses (liability)?"
MakcuM [25]

Expenses likely to be classified as prepaid expense (asset) are Prepaid Rent & Insurance Premiums. Enter a prepaid rent payment on the balance sheet as an asset until the month when the company is actually using the facility to which the rent relates, and then charge it to expense.   Any insurance premium costs that have not expired as of the balance sheet date should be reported as a current asset such as Prepaid Insurance.


8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Punitive damages: a. are a small amount of compensation given to the plaintiff. b. are like actual damages but do not seek to de
lukranit [14]

Answer:

The correct answer is letter "D": are damages in excess of the plaintiff's injuries, awarded to punish the defendant.

Explanation:

Punitive Damages are penalties passed to the defendant of court cases on top of compensations they must pay to plaintiffs because of the faults they committed. The punitive damage is not provided to the plaintiffs but is imposed to punish defendants when their faults are negligent and should not be repeated.  

Thus, <em>punish damages are imposed in an attempt to avoid other individuals to commit the same gross faults.</em>

6 0
3 years ago
Ginny Trueblood is considering an investment which will cost her $120,000. The investment produces no cash flows for the first y
velikii [3]

Answer:

The project should be rejected as the payback period of 3.97 years exceeds the required 3 years. So, the correct option is E

Explanation:

The table showing the discounted cash flows of each year:

Computing discounted payback as:

Discounted Payback = Number of years + (Initial Cost - Discounted Cash flow of year 1 + Discounted Cash flow of year 2 + Discounted Cash flow of year 3 / Discounted Cash flow of year 4)

= 3 + ($120,000 - $0 - $28,925.62  - $41,322.31  / $51,226.01)

= 3 + ($49,752.07 / $51,226.01)

= 3 + 0.97

= 3.97

Working Note:

Discounted Cash Flow is computed as:

Discounted cash flow = Cash Flow / (1 + r) ^ n

where

r is rate of return that is 10%

n is number of year

So,

For 1st year:

= $0 / (1 + 0.1) ^1

= $0

For 2nd year:

= $35,000 / (1 + 0.1) ^ 2

= $35,000 / 1.21

= $28,925.61

For 3rd year:

= $55,000 / (1 + 0.1) ^ 3

= $55,000 / 1.331

= $41,322.31

For 4th year:

= $75,000 / (1 + 0.1) ^ 4

= $75,000 / 1.4641

= $51,226.01

6 0
3 years ago
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